1/8
ok thanks
2007-09-10 19:05:23
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answer #1
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answered by sanjeewa 4
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It does NOT matter how may times you toss the coins before the final toss. Each coin tossed has a 50-50 chance of being tails. So, your odds are 1 in 4 provided the untossed coin is tails. If on the last toss, the untossed is heads, the odds are 0. I am assuming you do not look at the state of each coin, but rather pick a pair and toss each. If the untossed coin was tossed on a previous round, then the odds change to 1 in 8
2 coins with 1 already tails
HH
HT
TH
TT.
Final toss assuming all coins have been tossed at least one time can have only the following results, of which only 1 of the 8 is a winner:
HHH
HHT
HTH
HTT
THH
THT
TTH
TTT
Remember, like a lottery number, the number of times it came up tails previously has NO effect on the next toss. Odds of a coin coming up tails is 50-50, 1 in 2 regardless of history. The same goes for dice with the odds of any given side coming up are 1 in 6, unless of course, the dice are loaded...
2007-09-11 02:10:59
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answer #2
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answered by rowlfe 7
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The amount of flipping doesn't matter because the chances of heard or tails is equal. So it is just the chance that all 3 will be tails which is 1 in 8.
2007-09-11 01:55:34
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answer #3
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answered by Nelson_DeVon 7
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1:8
2007-09-11 01:59:27
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answer #4
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answered by Maddisyn's Mommy 3
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The odds are 7 to 1, the "chance" is 1 in 8. the Probability is 0.125 or 12.5 %
2007-09-11 02:01:10
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answer #5
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answered by SourJax 2
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each of the three has a 50% chance of being tails, so just multiply (.50)(.50)(.50) to get the answer
2007-09-11 01:56:11
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answer #6
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answered by Paladin 7
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I believe it's one in 8. 2x2x2.
2007-09-11 01:54:43
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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1 in 8
Hope this helps!
2007-09-11 01:55:30
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answer #8
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answered by p37ry 5
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p=12.5%
2007-09-11 02:08:37
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answer #9
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answered by Tuncay U 6
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