Polynomials??

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A polynomial p(x) . Given that p(x)>0 for all x>a, a is real number.
PROVE - if p(-x) = q(y) then q(y) <0 for all y < -a

2007-09-10 16:24:35 · 1 answers · asked by Falcon Feather 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics

1 answers

Sounds like an "arm-waver". Basically, if a is real, anything > a is also real.

The second part. This is basically the same as the first one, except that -x is substituted for y.

2007-09-10 16:30:35 · answer #1 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋