let's say A buys a car from B for $40,000, for the purpose of a race but the car had faulty brakes and A ended up in an accident. he could have earned 1 million from completing the race. which amount would damages be awarded for under breach of contract?
2007-09-10 03:33:10 · 6 answers · asked by chansherly212 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Welcome to Contracts 1L. If you read your textbook, you'll see the answer has something to do with the difference of value between what was contracted (expected) and what was delivered (i.e., the cost of the repairs to the brakes). However, most used car sales are considered "as is", meaning the racer would have to go "outside the contract" and prove fraud in the inducement, or an express warranty that could not be effectively disclaimed.
2007-09-10 04:26:31 · answer #1 · answered by Nuff Sed 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You are. The contract plainly states that they require a quote for extra work. Verbal communication by a secretary is never enough. A quote means a written bid for the exact work to be done down to the penny. I think you are well aware of that. You might not have gotten paid even if you had done just a minimum quick trim to make it look tidier before the campus opened but since you opted to go for the whole hog you just look greedy and stupid. Too bad but that is business.
2016-04-04 00:15:18 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Was there any guarantee with the car? Doubtful there will be any compensation as there are too may variables to be considered concerning the car and the driver.
2007-09-10 03:59:02 · answer #3 · answered by sensible_man 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nothing. The expected "profits" were speculative: contest winnings. There is no proff that he would certainly have won is his brakes worked.
2007-09-10 04:10:31 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
What was in the contract?
2007-09-10 03:40:36 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
ZILCH.
NADA.
ZIP.
2007-09-10 03:55:14 · answer #6 · answered by hexeliebe 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋