English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

i want to know exactly what interaction is there between the magnetic field of a conductor and the magnetic field of the magnet that makes the conductor to experience the Lorentz force when placed perpendicular to the magnetic feild and also why this force does'nt apply when the conductor is placed parallel to the magnetic field.

2007-09-10 02:37:39 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Physics

4 answers

charged particle experience a force when they traverse a magnetic field orthogonal to both the direction of motion and the magnetic field. A current consists of charged particles. As you realize, this is called the Lorentz force. That is indeed "exactly what" interaction is occuring. You'll need to research the nature and origin of magnetostatics in a good E&M text to dig further than that. It involves the Lorentz transformation of the Coulomb potential, so it gets a bit technical. I'll warn you though, that, by the end of the day, physics doesn't really do ultimate "whys". It'll just give you a derivation from more basic assumptions.

2007-09-10 03:18:52 · answer #1 · answered by Dr. R 7 · 0 0

I don't think that that effect has anything to do with Lorentz force which occurs inside the conductor itself.
The effect you are talking about is just interaction between two magnetic fields which is the principle of electric motors and generators.
The same thing happens when you bring two bar magnets near one another they will both try to turn around so that their opposite poles are adjacent.

2007-09-10 03:14:37 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If you want to get deeper than the simple classical electromagnetic rules (based on observation), then here goes...

Magnetism is nothing more than a manifestation of relativity on the electrostatic force (as an aside electrostatics could equally be described as the effects of relativity on magnetism if we had observed magnetic monopoles - the math is entirely symmetric).

Magnetism is associated always with moving charge - that is with charges moving relative to one another. This movement means that slightly more or slightly less charge per unit length will be seen from the frame of one charge compared to the other, because of the effects of relativity on length measurement. Hence, for instance, one metre of moving charge in one wire will "see" more or less than one metre of moving charge in another depending on the movement of charge in the other wire. This leads to an apparent "excess" charge that either repels or attracts.

The same applies to charges moving freely in space.

It does not apply if the movement of one charge is perpendicular to the other because in this case there is no relative movement in the perpendicular direction - hence no relativistic correction to take into account.

2007-09-10 03:52:33 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

A twine wouldnt adventure any rigidity till there substitute right into a modern-day working by using that substitute into perpendicular to the magnetic field direction. hence, one or the two certainly one of those issues are no longer occurring

2016-10-10 07:28:52 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers