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Unlike many other countries in which the kings had the highest power? Especially in the past, the society was a male dominated one. I'm really interested to know about the power the queen had in England. Thank you so much in advance for enlightening me.

2007-09-10 02:02:35 · 5 answers · asked by Water-lilies 1 in Arts & Humanities History

5 answers

The Queen, although the head of state, has little power in Great Britan for the position is now mainly ceremonial. Once upon a time the monarch was the head of state in fact as well as name. England began allowing the eldest child of either sex to assume the throne, despite a male dominated society, because of the necessity of a stable throne outweighed any smaller considerations of a woman's place in the society. One has only to look at the problems engendered by the "War of the Roses" and Henry VIII difficulties in producing a male heir to see why this policy came about.

2007-09-10 02:42:56 · answer #1 · answered by chessale 5 · 1 0

"England, Britain and uk In activities like Cricket, soccer (soccer), its England, while in activities like Olympics, its Britain, while some people call it uk?" NO, NO, NO, NO, NO! All incorrect! England isn't the comparable element as Britain and neither are the comparable element because of the fact the united kingdom England is barely one in all 4 countries which make up the united kingdom. Scotland, Wales and northerly eire are equivalent individuals interior the union with England. Britain, or greater wisely great Britain, is an island upon which the typical public of britain, Scotland and Wales are placed. Northern eire is placed on the neigbouring island of eire, which it shares with the Republic of eire, an self sufficient sovereign state. the united kingdom a unitary parliamentary constitutional monarchy, meaning the monarch (king or queen) does not individually exercising skill, however the government derives their proper to rule from her or him. The Queen is the ceremonial head of state, she isn't a flesh presser. the united kingdom has been a monarchy ever because of the fact it grow to be shaped in 1707, whether in those days, the monarch grow to be the top of government as properly because of the fact the top of state. They exercised finished skill over the country. beforehand of the union being shaped, the dominion of Scotland and the dominion of britain shared the island of great Britain. In 1801, the dominion of eire joined the union, on an identical time as in 1922, the southern factor of eire seceded to grow to be its very own republic

2016-11-14 20:32:42 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

In it's simplest form, if the current monarch has a male child then that child will become king. If the monarch has multiple male children the eldest will become king. If the monarch doesn't have a male child but has a female child then that child will become queen. Queen Elizabeth's son Charles is slated to become King when either she abdicates (steps down) or upon her death.

2007-09-10 02:24:04 · answer #3 · answered by Michael J 5 · 0 0

Queens regnant of England in modern times really possess very little power (come to that, so do kings!). Elizabeth I and her half sister, Mary I, whom she succeeded, had more personal power than Mary II (who was little more than her husband's reason for being King William II--he was the de facto ruler and succeeded her as sole ruler upon her death) or Queen Anne (sister of Mary II who came to the throne on the death of her brother-in-law).

The reason the Stuart queens (Mary II and Anne) had less power than their Tudor counterparts (Mary I and Elizabeth I) was because by the time of their succession England had weathered the English Civil War in the 1640's, and this in turn led to a decided limitation of the power of the monarch. This was even more so following the Glorious Revolution in the 1680's, which ousted James II (father of Mary and Anne) and put William and Mary on the throne.

By the time of Victoria, it was well established that the king or queen was limited by constitutional law (hence the term "constitutional monarchy" to describe the role of royals in many modern countries) and had, essentially, become more of a symbol than one who wielded any real political power.

Just as a side note, there were actually two queens of England prior to the accession of Mary I--Matilda, who was never crowned and whose disputed reign was marked by civil war so vicious that chroniclers said that "Christ and all His saints slept" while it was going on (her cousin, Stephen, had claimed kingship, despite the fact that Matilda's father had had his barons swear fealty to her as his legitimate heir--all of this occurred in the 12th century). Ultimately an agreement was reached in which Matilda assigned her royal claims to her son, the future Henry II, who became king on the death of Stephen.

The other was the unfortunate Jane Grey, a cousin of Mary and Elizabeth, who was proclaimed queen after the death of the equally unfortunate Edward VI, the only legitimate son of Henry VIIII. Although Edward's father had designated Mary, then Elizabeth, as heirs to the throne should his son die childless, John Dudley, whose son Guildford had married Jane, persuaded him to change the succession on religious grounds (Mary was Catholic and Edward was a committed Protestant--Dudley wanted Elizabeth bypassed even though she was Protestant because he felt that Jane would be much more docile, a puppet he could control). She was never crowned, but was queen (even if only in name) for nine days (giving rise to the phrase "nine days' wonder"). Jane and her husband were both executed following the rebellion led by Thomas Wyatt. She was only 17 years old at the time of her death.

2007-09-10 04:13:43 · answer #4 · answered by Chrispy 7 · 0 0

it's because harold is too old

2007-09-10 02:11:40 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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