Those giving evidence (and that includes those merely translating for a witness) who wish to swear rather than affirm, have a range of books to chose from.
They can swear an oath on the New Testament, the Old Testament, the Gita, the Holy Koran and so on. All are provided.
Christians of all demominations tend to swear on the New Testament because:
(a) from a religious perspective it is where Jesus Christ made his word known to man;
(b) from a court perspective, it is smaller and more portable than the whole bible.
In the Uk at least I have not seen the entire bible used in court in taking the oath, but I'm sure it could be produced if someone really demanded it.
From the legal perspective it makes not the slightest odds whether you swear on the Bible or the latest Harry Potter - you are obliged to tell the truth either way and can be committed for perjury if you don't.
2007-09-09 10:14:57
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answer #1
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answered by JZD 7
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A Bible containing the Old Testament can also be used.
The Bible was used, because:
--the country was founded upon Biblical principles and ideals
--most people here in the early days of our country were in fact Christians or at least presumed to be Christians, of one denomination or the other
--the Bible was considered the highest standard of truth, and to swear on it meant that you held to this standard of truth.
In courts today, Bibles are not necessary. People can simply "swear to tell the truth, the whole truth and nothing but the truth, so help you God."
The separation of church and state was originally only about the government NOT requiring any person to believe a religion imposed or created by the state.
2007-09-09 10:15:47
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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In English courts, at least, you do not have to swear upon the New Testament, the Old Testament, the Koran or whatever your religion holds to be dear. You can affirm, which is to solemnly and sincerely promise to tell the truth etc. ,and has the same strength in law. Most religious books are available in court to be sworn upon if required. It's just traditional to use the Bible by default, as Christianity is supposed to be the "official" religion.
2007-09-09 22:17:34
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answer #3
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answered by champer 7
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Whether the Bible that is used in courts has the New Testament or only the Old Testament, its use is designed to bring the illusion of honesty to the testimony of the liars on the stand.
It's a pointless tradition because regardless of what book is used the liars will lie and the truth-tellers will tell the truth.
2007-09-09 10:17:13
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answer #4
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answered by deanyourfriendinky 7
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Lawyers don't swear people in. People of any religion can use their own particular religious text, those of no particular persuasion and even some 'born again' Christians will choose to affirm, they should always be asked prior, by the usher, what they prefer to do, to enable them to find the appropriate book, If it is not available then the witness/defendant will affirm. BTW, in the UK we do not say 'so help me God' (unless your witness is a bit excitable and been watching too much US telly, the night before!)
2007-09-10 04:55:28
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answer #5
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answered by groovymaude 6
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They don't use a "new testament bible" they use the "Holy Bible" which includes both testaments and use of a bible is not required for "swearing someone in" --
2007-09-09 10:10:52
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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It's tradition I guess. I mean, the president swears in on a bible too.
2007-09-09 10:21:14
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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you can use whatever your religion holds, Bible, Koran etc etc
you can also abstain if you have no religion.
as you can imagine a court has to have many options available so I guess its their in case someone says they follow the NT.
2007-09-09 10:40:02
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answer #8
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answered by emma g 3
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I wondered that earlier today. Weird!!! Whatever happened to seperation of church and state. And what about non-Christians, do they swear in the same way.?
2007-09-09 10:08:34
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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actually I do believe they did away with that altogether not to long ago now you just raise your right hand in most courts.
it had to do with the separation of government and religion.
2007-09-09 10:23:21
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answer #10
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answered by Nick 5
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