2007-09-09 04:49:09 · 9 answers · asked by Part Time Cynic 7 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
There are no actual written records of the Jewish population of England during the reign of King John. Although tax records and royal accounts from the period hint at a number between three thousand to five thousand individuals.
Magna Carta contained two articles related to money lending and Jews in England. So their population and economic impact was certainly large enough to warrant legal attention.
Since the time of the Norman Conquest, the Jews had been filling a small but vital gap in the English economy. Usury was banned by the church at the time, and so the Jews provided an important service as moneylenders and bankers. This position was to bring some of them tremendous wealth, but also the prejudice of the English populace. As special subjects under the direct control of the monarch, the Jews could be taxed indiscriminately by the King.
Of course, only seventy-five years later, the Jews were expelled from England by King Edward I, after having been bled of all their finances for his costly wars against the Scots and the Welsh. So after 1290, there were essentially no Jews in England.
Hope this helps,
Peace
2007-09-09 04:56:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
Magna Carta was signed in 1215.
The jews of England wereexpelled in 1290, between 4000 and 16000.
2007-09-09 11:58:57 · answer #2 · answered by Canute 6 · 5⤊ 0⤋
There were no censuses in those days, so one can only guess. However, since the Jews were the bankers of the day (the Catholic church forbade moneylending) there are documents that refer to them. An educated guess would suggest perhaps five or six thousand in total.
2007-09-09 20:11:07 · answer #3 · answered by marguerite L 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Don't know of any specific numbers, but they must have been here in some numbers because the first pogrom against the Jews happened in York during the same century.
2007-09-09 11:55:51 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 0⤋
~Enough so they got special mention in the Charter (and were screwed by the Baron's and by John), but there were no census figures.
2007-09-09 11:53:05 · answer #5 · answered by Oscar Himpflewitz 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
none
there never wee any Jews in Britain until about the 20th century as it was a wholly Christian nation.
2007-09-09 12:40:07 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 6⤋
Let me have a think...
2007-09-09 11:53:33 · answer #7 · answered by solidreckoning 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
maybe, just maybe 90,000
2007-09-09 11:54:28 · answer #8 · answered by Al 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Don't really know, but don't be bothered about the Jews, its the Muslims that they kill.
2007-09-09 11:53:51 · answer #9 · answered by the_tent_man36 4 · 0⤊ 11⤋