If a person can get double homicide counts for killing a pregnant woman (California's Peterson law), this would designate that a fetus regardless of age is human. So how will this play out with RoeVWade ruling about a woman's right of medical privacy with respect to aborting her unborn. Privacy doesn't apply under probable cause and manslaughter.
2007-09-07 10:49:27 · 6 answers · asked by emp 6 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Oh sorry
http://news.findlaw.com/hdocs/docs/abortion/unbornbill32504.html
The law says nothing about trimesters however it does specifically allow abortions. So what are we to take from this. It's only human if the mother says so? That's a great legal definition isn't it?
2007-09-07 11:05:25 · update #1
I've wondered pretty much the same thing.
It is so curious that a woman who believes in abortion but chooses not to have one, will not refer to her fetus as a fetus. She starts talking about the baby right away: the baby's room, baby clothes, baby shower, baby names, the baby kicked, the baby's due, the baby's father. Yes, they're mostly words of hope and planning. But they're also calling a fetus a baby. And the mother, if she's unfortunate enough to miscarry, loses a "baby".
To me, this indicates that the word "fetus" itself is a rationalization used to convince oneself it's NOT a baby.
The way I understand it, even though Laci Peterson had already named her baby, it was not to be considered a baby until there'd been a live delivery, even if only briefly. Perhaps I msiunderstood.
2007-09-07 11:33:45 · answer #1 · answered by suenami_98 5 · 0⤊ 3⤋
Your statement is incorrect. You state that 'this would designate that a fetus regardless of age is human". This is not the case. The Lacy Peterson law take effect in the third trimester. It is illegal in all 50 states to get an abortion in the third trimester.
Nice try, but failed again.
2007-09-07 10:56:57 · answer #2 · answered by davidmi711 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Peterson's baby was full term and ready for delivery.
There is a line drawn between a full term fetus and a 2 week old embryo.
Where that line is, is currently undefined and does need definition, in my book.
2007-09-07 10:56:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It doesn't require rationalization - it's simple.
Lacy didn't choose to have herself murdered - nor did she choose to abort her child.
When the death of a fetus is at the hands of another while they are engaged in a criminal act or an act of criminal negligence it is fetal homicide.
2007-09-07 10:58:18 · answer #4 · answered by pepper 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No, it says(the fetal homicide law) that the fetus must be viable.
2007-09-07 11:00:00 · answer #5 · answered by Run Lola Run 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is a good question and it shows how hypocritical some laws are. I am against abortion unless it is a matter of life or death for the mother during delivery. Once life is concieved it should be protected under the law, that is it.
2007-09-07 10:58:51 · answer #6 · answered by schneider2294@sbcglobal.net 6 · 0⤊ 4⤋