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Wikipedia and several other questionable online sources cite an incident in which Pope Innocent VIII accepted a gift of 100 Moor slaves from King Ferdinand of Aragon in 1488. Other than a book written by the 19th C. historian, Jacob Burckhardt, I have found no reputable scholarship on this subject. Has anyone ever heard of this, or even similar cases in which papal authority owned slaves? Thanks.

2007-09-07 03:10:25 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

3 answers

I do not know whether this is true or not.

However this would go against the 1462 declaration by Pius II condeming slavery.

The Bible does not condemn slavery. Colossians 3:22 even states, "Slaves, obey your human masters in everything."

The Catholic Church was one of the first groups to condemn slavery.

The condemnation of slavery is one of those nonbiblical doctrines that Catholics have developed through the inspiration of the Holy Spirit over the centuries.

+ In 1462, Pius II declared slavery to be "a great crime" (magnum scelus). Note that this was 30 years before Columbus "discovered" America.

+ In 1537, Paul III forbade the enslavement of the Indians

+ Urban VIII forbade it in 1639

+ Benedict XIV forbade it in 1741

+ Pius VII demanded of the Congress of Vienna, in 1815, the suppression of the slave trade

+ Gregory XVI condemned it in 1839

+ In the Bull of Canonization of the Jesuit Peter Claver, one of the most illustrious adversaries of slavery, Pius IX branded the "supreme villainy" (summum nefas) of the slave traders.

+ Leo XIII, in 1888, addressed a letter to the Brazilian bishops, exhorting them to banish from their country the remnants of slavery -- a letter to which the bishops responded with their most energetic efforts, and some generous slave-owners by freeing their slaves in a body, as in the first ages of the Church.

http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/14036a.htm

With love in Christ.

2007-09-07 18:19:16 · answer #1 · answered by imacatholic2 7 · 0 0

http://www.christianitytoday.com/ct/2003/julyweb-only/7-14-53.0.html

Found this article. It says Yes...he was given slaves. Scroll down to get to the information about Pope Innocent VIII

"It is true that some popes did not observe the moral obligation to oppose slavery—indeed, in 1488 Pope Innocent VIII accepted a gift of a hundred Moorish slaves from King Ferdinand of Aragon, giving some of them to his favorite cardinals. Of course, Innocent was anything but that when it came to a whole list of immoral actions. However, laxity must not be confused with doctrine. Thus while Innocent fathered many children, he did not retract the official doctrine that the clergy should be celibate. In similar fashion, his acceptance of a gift of slaves should not be confused with official Church teachings. These were enunciated often and explicitly as they became pertinent."

2007-09-07 03:46:03 · answer #2 · answered by Serena 7 · 0 0

"The real question is: Lucifer is a Latin name. So how did it find its way into a Hebrew manuscript, written before there was a Roman language?.........>>>Roman heresy!" 1. Lucifer is not Satan. This is a common misconception. Look it up. 2. Yes, Lucifer is a Latin name. However, it is NOT in a Hebrew manuscript. It's in the Christian Bible. It is a Latin translation of the Hebrew "Hêlēl"

2016-04-03 08:40:32 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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