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I heard someone say "One speaks good English" recently, and was wondering if this was a correct usage. I've always thought that "one" refered to either a person, or people in general. So I would have thought that "If one speaks good English..." would be correct, but not just "One speaks good English" because people, in general don't speak good English. I was just wondering! Thanks for answers!

2007-09-06 22:59:34 · 3 answers · asked by Gypsophila 3 in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

3 answers

You're right, but I don't see it as a grammatical problem, but rather a logical one.

2007-09-06 23:19:02 · answer #1 · answered by Belzetot 5 · 0 0

Yes, the word one can refer (as 'man' in german, or 'on' in french) to people in general, as in 'one must do their homework', however, in the queens english (and yes, she uses it), One refers to the self, me, I. So, 'one speaks good english' can mean people speak good english, but it also means I speak good english. Though correct usage, it is very archaic, and is viewed as being very haughty. Needless to say, few people use it nowadays (though I have been known to on occasion!).

2007-09-08 17:46:14 · answer #2 · answered by Richard W 4 · 0 0

The word "one" in this context is often used in Europe to mean "I." It seems less egocentric to them. It's done in France, Spain, and Britain. We don't generally use "one" in this way in the US.

2007-09-07 06:47:19 · answer #3 · answered by Elaine P...is for Poetry 7 · 1 1

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