I realize this was asked before. But more specifically, would it be upheld in court in a case for "breach of contract" lets say if one spouse cheated on the other, or other various instances that may happen in a marriage. Could you sue your "former" spouse beyond a divorce further for breach of contract?
2007-09-06 12:55:02 · 5 answers · asked by blanquettedeveau 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
In the state of texas....it's a double hell no....when you file for divorce there is no one at fault really....reguardless of cheating or not...that is what the state says i don't know what state you are from. But no...there is not such thing as a "breach of contract"....
2007-09-06 13:06:30 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Marriage brings 2 human beings which contain the purpose of beginning a kin. The kin is a unit of the society. that's in a kin that youngsters strengthen and learn. If there replaced into no contract/contract between the father and mom, toddlers does no longer be waiting to strengthen up generally. in actuality, a brilliant form of the themes we come throughout the time of interior the society are the effect of dysfunctional households. purely think of without contract toddlers could be produced without dedication from all of us to guard them. frightening concept.
2016-10-10 02:27:26 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's a contract, but you can't sue for breach of contract if the marriage breaks up (plus, technically, both parties swore "I do" and didn't, so one party isn't more culpable than the other). That's what a divorce is for.
2007-09-06 13:10:48 · answer #3 · answered by Hillary 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As well as an institution...
do you want to be institutionalized ?
2007-09-06 14:54:30 · answer #4 · answered by sirbobby98121 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes you can.
2007-09-06 13:02:21 · answer #5 · answered by Chief High Commander, UAN 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋