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Or are they just too mixed with other races to make that statement?

2007-09-06 01:57:46 · 11 answers · asked by Belzetot 5 in Travel Europe (Continental) Greece

Jelena and Leonarda are too defensive and miss the point completely. Of course the Egyptians and Romans are not the descendants of their ancient monikers. But in case of Greeks, they maintain that the Macedonians next door have no right to use the name "Macedonia" because they're not "pure" descandants of Alexander. That's why I'm wondering if modern Greeks themselves are any better.

2007-09-06 02:29:11 · update #1

11 answers

The inhabitants of FYROM, that you mention, are not just "unpure" descendants of Macedonians: they have nothing to do with Macedonians at all. They are a totally different Slavic tribe who came to this area 1000 years after Alexander. They found out they are "Macedonians" in the 1950's, for political reasons.

And to answer your initial question, sure there have been mixes, but boy you can see some people in the streets that look exactly like the features of ancient Greek sculptures. They are very characteristic. Like you can see typical Norman faces in England, etc.
Greeks, even if they have had mixes, genetically, as a culture are a continuous and uninterrupted evolution of ancient Greece. Many people who came here were assimilated in the local culture and tradition. For example, there have been some immigration from Albania in the Middle Ages, the so-called Arvanites. Many villages had mostly population of Arvanites. But they were assimilated to feel Greek, and they have no difference from any other Greek in ages. You know, there is an ancient saying "Greeks are those who share our culture and education".
The people in FYROM have nothing to do with the culture, the language, or anything else from ancient Macedonia. The proof is that they claim Macedonia was not Greek, whereas it was clearly one of teh Greek kingdoms, hence it spread the Greek culture in all of Alexander's new territories. they claim that what they used was the "koine" (common around teh Mediterranean) greek language, but the truth is that it became common exactly because it was spread by Alexander's conquests.

2007-09-06 06:52:53 · answer #1 · answered by cpinatsi 7 · 5 3

Modern Greeks

2016-10-19 03:12:03 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Maybe not of Socrates and Leonidas themselves, (it seems these are the only ancient Greek names you know) but certainly we have a continuation as a nation through the ages, and we have never stolen any other nation's history.

2007-09-06 06:04:48 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 7 1

dna testing is required in order to determine descendancy so we need some from socrates & leonidas.

the ruling leaders of the austro-hungarian empire traced their lineage directly back to caesar by maintaining detailed records...people have married, moved, relocated etc thru the years.

some current residents in the small village of cheddar england have had their dna tested & can tract their relatives back to the original inhabitants....some people obviously never move away......

who knows where all the descendants of any ancient civilization have gone to..........?

2007-09-06 04:08:20 · answer #4 · answered by lauren s 5 · 1 0

This is not the first (or last) question on this subject here. To avoid any suspicion, you should clearly point out what does mean "real descendant of Socrates or Leonidas", and why is this always pointed out to Greece.
Are the modern Italians real descendants of Seneca or Marco Aurelius?
What is the point of this question, those times are clearly something substantially different than modern times. And from what I know of sociology, I don't see how we can compare it at all. Of course they are descendants genetically. If you are concerned about modern Greek culture I suggest that you first inform yourself about it and than if you like compare "modern Greeks" with "modern Italians" or "modern Americans", and let me know the result.

if the point of this question is political, you should clarify it in the first place, so that we don't bother to answer

2007-09-06 02:16:18 · answer #5 · answered by Jelena L. 4 · 11 2

YES WE ARE! Greek history shows that too many and different people have passed from the greek lands but the greek nation had never dissappeared

2007-09-06 05:48:03 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 5 0

Greeks speak the same (even if altered through the ages) language with Alexander.
The Vardarkans, which discovered the name "Macedonia" only recently, speak a Bulgarian idiom.
Consequently, your arguments are poinltess and absurd.

2007-09-06 06:31:59 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 4 1

Because they are brainwashed by the Zionist propaganda who want us to accept that we have no history, we have no culture etc, in order to accept the mass immigration and do what the globalists want to do.

2016-03-16 22:05:50 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

According to Savigny, it's the trans-subjective counciouness that forms a nation: The common feelings and beliefs of a group of people about belonging to it, mainly in relationship with culture, language, traditions, customs etc.
Refferances to blood purity and its continuation through the ages can be only Hitler's ideal.
Ancient Greeks would consider Greek any person, even a foreigner, who shared Greek culture and education.

2007-09-06 04:37:40 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 11 5

I agree with Jelena and I want to add a comment on Leonarda's answer that Cleopatra was Greek too, not Egyptian.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cleopatra

2007-09-06 02:48:08 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 11 1

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