2007-09-05 16:14:26 · 5 answers · asked by Onion? 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
You can't because 1 doesn't equal 2.
There is a false proof all over the internet that involves division by zero, which is forbidden in mathematics.
Click the source to see an example of the proof I'm talking about. Notice the last line involved division by zero.
2007-09-05 16:19:41 · answer #1 · answered by whitesox09 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if 1=3 and 3=2, then 1=2
2007-09-05 23:27:04 · answer #2 · answered by midnightjoker 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since 1 does not equal 2, you can't prove it. There are phony proofs that do it by dividing by 0, but that's not really a proof.
2007-09-05 23:20:27 · answer #3 · answered by Philo 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You forgot the 1+ part of the equasion.
2007-09-05 23:20:45 · answer #4 · answered by Bacse 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
20-16-4=25-20-5
agreed?
4(5-4-1)=5(5-4-1)
this is true...
now divide by (5-4-1)
4(5-4-1)/(5-4-1) = 5(5-4-1)/(5-4-1)
4=5...now subtract 3 from each side
1=2!!!!
Please give me best answer...took my enough time to type this up
Hope this helps!
2007-09-05 23:24:25 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋