Hi,
Well, technically speaking, France didn't "surrender." They agreed to an armistice which is more of a truce. The History Place notes that the armistice took place on June 22, 1940.
So, why did France agree to the armistice? Various history sites note that the French armies were badly defeated by the Germans in the Battle of France. The French were in retreat and felt it wise to cut their losses in an effort to protect lives.
It is worth noting that many French citizens fought in the underground movement to free France from Germany occupation.
The second link below offers a complete transcript of the Armistice. Makes for an interesting read and shows just how powerful the Nazis were at this dark point in history.
Mike
2007-09-05 10:12:38
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answer #1
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answered by Ask Mike 4
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France never learned the lessons from World War I, they still think that trench warfare and massive manpower will win the war and there impenetrable MAGINOT LINE will hold back the German Blitzkrieg, they never anticipated that the Germans will cross the Ardennes Forest and the German High Command use a new tactic, the mechanized infantry and Tanks. After knowing that the Germans are already at the back of the Maginot Line everyhting collapsed, becuase French Heavy Artillery cannot turned around from its fixed position in the Maginot Line, Armistice was signed and they established the Vichy government in Southern France.
2007-09-05 15:21:53
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answer #2
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answered by AKDAKD 2
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Not easy to explain quickly.
First, the French (and the Germans) over-fortified their common frontiers to avoid invasion.
Secondly, the French concentrated their defensive forces along this line
Third, it was believed that a push through Belgium would take time - time enough for the French to move forces from the east to the north.
Fourth, the Ardennes was a natural barrier to any land forces (unless your name was Hannibal)
Fifth, the French Army was greatly outdated in 1939 - it still had cavalry units!
Sixth, the French Army command still had a 1917 mentality about warfare. Clearly the occupation of the Sudatenland was not reported in France!
Seventh, Hitler was better prepared and committed the "ungentlemanly act" of cutting through the Ardennes with tanks, thereby catching the French flat-footed.
Eighth, the French government, by surrendering when they did, managed to salvage some of their colonial empire.
2007-09-05 12:26:15
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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The battle of France lasted from May 10 to June 22, 1940, so they didn't *immediately* surrender.
Oddly enough, general worldwide consensus at the time considered the French Army the best in the world!
2007-09-05 09:54:04
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answer #4
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answered by Ice 6
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France was under the illusion that the Maginot Line provided them adequate safety from any attack by the Huns. The line from the Alps to the Ardennes was considered inpenetrable and was trench warfare taken to the extremes. The BEF and best French Divisions were poised to go into the Low Countries to meet the expected line of attack.
The Germans attacked Holland/Belgium as expected, but it was merely a diversion to entice the BEF and French divisions to move forward. The plan worked, they moved right into Hitler's trap.
His main attack, of course, was through the inpenetrable Ardennes. When news reached Paris of the breakthrough by Rommel's 7th Panzer Division at Sedan, panic set it in. Those who could left, 1 million of them, including the French cabinet. French morale immediatly collapsed, although the French had equal to and superior armour and planes.
The French used their tanks in penny packets supporting infantry while the germans massed their tanks at the point of attack and easily overwhelmed the French. The French High Command ordered the BEF and trapped French divisions to strike south toward Paris, instead the BEF hightailed it out at Dunkirk, and the remaining French Divisions caught in the trap surrendered.
So, the bottom line, the French strategy of fighting the trench warfare of WWI, the poor tactic of using their armour in penny packets, the BEF retreat at Dunkirk, the Wehrmacts blitzkrieg tactics of massed armour combined with air support, proved France's easy down fall.
2007-09-05 13:02:31
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answer #5
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answered by Its not me Its u 7
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Because France immediately lost in WWII.
2007-09-05 10:18:35
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Only B is correct. East Germany was originally the Russian Zone. There was never a peace treaty. Germany surrendered unconditionally. Russia plundered its zone but there were never any formal reparations from any zone.
2016-05-17 12:24:48
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answer #7
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answered by ? 2
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France lasted as long as possible. Defending the Maginot line was just a bad tactic.
2007-09-05 10:26:40
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answer #8
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answered by John C 4
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They didn't surrender IMMEDIATELY -- but let's face it... the entire country was overrun and they had German tank brigades all over the streets of the capital.
... there was a resistance movement (of course) - but the country was lost even before they could mount a decent defense.
2007-09-05 09:56:39
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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France was not prepared for war. They were overwhelmed by Germany's blitzkrieg style warfare.
2007-09-05 09:50:27
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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