2007-09-05 05:54:07 · 7 answers · asked by krups 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Because in those days every grown man had a wife.
2007-09-05 06:01:43 · answer #1 · answered by Kat. 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Charator
2016-11-01 23:05:24 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is thought Shakespeare used the ruthless, manipulative Lady Macbeth to subvert the traditional Jacobean attitudes towards femininity. In the years since the play was written, she has become an archetypal character: she is the standard template for a wife goading her husband into bettering his position in life, if not her own.
2007-09-05 06:01:16 · answer #3 · answered by Michael J 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
To enable him to slander one of Scotland's more successful kings.
Macbeth ruled the land after being elected monarch(YES Celtic kings were elected at a time when usurpation was the usual method of succesion amongst ye Saxons.)
He was able secure enough to go on pilgramage to Rome at a time when most Saxon kings could count only on treachery from thier supporters.
After the Saxons finally managed to defeat him they placed a puppet on the throne who was married to a saxn and supported them. It is perhaps significanbt of Scots feelings that Macbeth is burried at Iona (traditional resting place of scots leaders, his successor is not!
2007-09-06 02:23:31 · answer #4 · answered by Aine G 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
not sure, but in my gcse english lit coursework, i wrote, and i quote, "lady macbeth is a control freak"
suprisingly my english teacher made me re-word it!
i know i havent answered your question at all but it reminded me of my schooldays and made me smile. i just felt the need to share with you!
x
2007-09-05 07:00:26 · answer #5 · answered by cowboy_style 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He had a need to create her to fill a role he had for her.
That`s it
2007-09-05 06:19:24 · answer #6 · answered by Montgomery B 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
She was based on his wife who kept on baiting him!!
2007-09-05 06:17:16 · answer #7 · answered by Christine H 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋