We are at war in Iraq, but also a war has not been declared. My understanding is Congress authorized Bush to use force in Iraq, but did not declare war. Is that what it takes to invade a country and occupy it for years is for Congress to merely vote "permission to use force"? But the thing that really is confusing is ....if congress wants to deauthorize the use of force, Bush can veto a deauthorization?
This seems to not follow logically, How can congress have authority to say "go attack a country", but if they want to say "leave that country alone...we no longer want them attacked", the president can veto the latter?
2007-09-04
18:04:42
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7 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
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Politics & Government
➔ Politics