It's 3840. The pattern is
multiply by 2 then 4 then 6 then 8 then 10, ... .
2007-09-04 08:49:56
·
answer #1
·
answered by steiner1745 7
·
1⤊
1⤋
1
1×2 = 2
2×4 = 8
8×6 = 48
48×8 = 384
384×10 = 3840
12x3480 = 41760
This can be written as either of the following:
(2n)!!
(2^n) n!
Note that !! does not mean to do factorial twice. The ! means factorial. !! means something called "double factorial."
So for n=5 (what you want), put:
(2^5) 5!
= 32 × (5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1)
= 32 × 120 = 3480
Double factorial is where you take every other one. For n=5, we can do:
(2×5)!! = 10!!
= 10 × 8 × 6 × 4 × 2
notice we take every other factor as we count down from 10
= 3480
Which also demonstrates how this recursion actually defines the !! function.
2007-09-04 08:42:03
·
answer #2
·
answered by сhееsеr1 7
·
1⤊
0⤋
2 x 1 = 2
4 x 2 = 8
6 x 8 = 48
8 x 48 = 348
10 x 348 = 3480
12 x 3480 = 41,760
2007-09-04 08:45:53
·
answer #3
·
answered by bedbye 6
·
0⤊
1⤋
3840
1*2 = 2
2 *4 = 8
8 * 6 = 48
48 * 8 = 384
384 * 10 = 3840
thus multiply it times 10 to get 3840
2007-09-04 08:41:08
·
answer #4
·
answered by isock86 3
·
1⤊
1⤋
1 2 8 48 384
2017-02-23 13:18:35
·
answer #5
·
answered by ? 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
Appears to be successive multiples of 2, so 10 x 384 = 3840
2007-09-04 08:40:15
·
answer #6
·
answered by John V 6
·
0⤊
2⤋
3840...each subsequent number is being multipied by the next number counted by two.
1 (x2) 2 (x4) 8 (x6) 48 (x8) 384 (x10) 3840.
2007-09-04 08:41:32
·
answer #7
·
answered by BLLYRCKS 5
·
1⤊
1⤋
3840
You are multiplying each term by,then 4, then 6, then 8 then 10, then 12, etc
2007-09-04 08:43:11
·
answer #8
·
answered by ironduke8159 7
·
1⤊
1⤋
3840 followed by 46080
in statistics this is called (perfect) autocorrelation
try a harder one
2007-09-04 08:53:43
·
answer #9
·
answered by mrrosema 5
·
0⤊
1⤋
the sequence is like this!
1x2=2
2x4=8
8x6=48
48x8=384
so..
384x10=3840
hope this helped!
2007-09-04 08:43:16
·
answer #10
·
answered by zublinjr 3
·
1⤊
1⤋