why?
Thanks.
2007-09-03 18:16:52 · 5 answers · asked by shenis 2 in Education & Reference ➔ Standards & Testing
# 2 is right. # 1 is wrong because b. says I've (I have) been taking bills. You shouldn't use have and been together. It's a big grammar no no.
2007-09-03 18:24:44 · answer #1 · answered by Mz_Monroe 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
what's the difference between 1a. and 2a.? As for the b's i would say b.I've been taking pills. Because it sounds better. But it really depends on how you intend to use the sentence.
2007-09-04 01:23:03 · answer #2 · answered by C.A.S. 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1, but haha, don't pop no pills...next thing you know, you'll pop a bunch of random pills and won't be able to get up the stairs...
2007-09-04 01:24:17 · answer #3 · answered by Amanda Overmeyer-Janis of today! 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They're both wrong. At least, the way you wrote them...
2007-09-04 04:03:14 · answer #4 · answered by scruffycat 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
2007-09-04 01:24:58 · answer #5 · answered by steph 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋