2007-09-03 15:34:25 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Originally Holy Roman Empire.
Nibbled away by France until complete absorbtion in 1766.
French till 1871.
German till 1918.
Administratively German 1940-4/5.
2007-09-04 03:34:29 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Both. Neither. It depends upon how far you want to go back in history. Alsace was part of the Holy Roman Empire. Lorraine was an independent kingdom. They were both fought over and won and lost many times by the Germans and French before World War II.
2007-09-03 16:41:39 · answer #2 · answered by Peaches 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Alsace Lorraine from 1940-1945 belonged to Germany, after the war the area was returned to France.
gatita_63109
2007-09-03 15:51:34 · answer #3 · answered by gatita 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was originally two separate entities: Alsace and Lorraine.
It's been squabbled over for centuries - primarily between the French and the Germans.
My great-grandmother was called Sadie when the Germans had it and Salome when the French had it. When she emigrated to America she stuck with Sadie.
It (they) has a fascinating history - particularly because of its location in the greater scheme of Europe.
Sadie always considered herself Alsatian - neither French nor German.
2007-09-04 09:05:06 · answer #4 · answered by Sprouts Mom 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
How was Germany strong enough to fight against the worlds in WW2? Initially because the countries they defeated were weak, and relatively inept. Even France and the Soviet Union. France - because they were prepared to re-fight (and use the tactics of) the last war. And the Soviet Union, because their military leadership had been decimated (by Stalin's purges). So Hitler, and Germany had some luck there. No doubt Germany had the help of other countries. But given that Germany was the strongest player at the time, they likely had little choice. Help us OR ELSE!! But once the Soviet Union, and Britain rebuilt their forces, and the U.S. joined the fight, Nazi Germany was doomed.
2016-05-20 22:55:00 · answer #5 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Before WW2 they belonged to France who regained them after WW1. Before that they belonged to Germany since 1870
2007-09-03 18:04:14 · answer #6 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is a long and complicated history. My grandfather was from there and if you asked him he would tell you he was Alcasian - neither French nor German. The people of the region proudly helped defend Paris from the German invaders. They were very much involved in the underground. Read their history
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alsace-Lorraine
Pax - C
2007-09-03 15:42:20 · answer #7 · answered by Persiphone_Hellecat 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The province has been going back and forth for the last two centuries. When one side won, they exchanged a few duchies, paid some few millions and called it a day....thinking better luck next time.... WWII was no different.
2007-09-03 18:52:49 · answer #8 · answered by Its not me Its u 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was French before WWII but has a long history of changing from French to German.
2007-09-03 22:22:23 · answer #9 · answered by Jim 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋