I have a child from my previous marriage. I re-married and got 2 more kids. My in-laws bought us a house, pd for 50% of it. My hubby & I equally pay monthly morgage. Recently, my inlaws wanted me to sign a legal document making only my 2 younger kids d beneficiaries of the house just in case my hubby dies. What abt my 1st child? I feel that he deserves some fair share since I put in monthly mortgage but I don't like discussing money issues with my inlaws. What do i do? I have changed my beneficiary schedule in my 401K giving my oldest 80% of it and 10% equally to my other 2 kids. Then i think they might think i favor my oldest when time comes to get the inheritance but I am dead so I cannot explain anything (they are all under 10 y/o right now).
Honestly, I don't care for anything for me but I'd like al my kids to have their fair share. But what is fair & how do I handle this situation without leaving any one left out and not making a negative impression to my in-laws?
2007-09-03
09:58:11
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2 answers
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asked by
smith
3
in
Business & Finance
➔ Personal Finance