If the bases are loaded with no outs and the pitcher "strikes" out the batter but the catcher "accidentally" drops the ball, steps on home plate, fires to second base, and then throws to first, can that be a triple play?
I know that normally if there is a strikeout but the catcher dropped the ball, he must throw it to first base to record the out, so does that rule still apply in a bases loaded, no outs situation? Also I know about the infield fly rule that makes triple plays difficult to come by when an infielder lets a routine pop fly ball drop.
2007-09-02 18:14:05 · 8 answers · asked by asianacew 1 in Sports ➔ Baseball
It is just a regular strikeout. 6.05c
The rule about uncaught third strikes does not apply here, precisely to prevent such cheap outs.
It only applies with two outs, or less than two outs and first base open. 6.09b
"The batter becomes a runner when --
(b) The third strike called by the umpire is not caught, providing (1) first base is unoccupied, or (2) first base is occupied with two out"
2007-09-02 18:33:47 · answer #1 · answered by DaM 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
The bases would still be loaded and the batter would be out on the strikeout.
Under the rules, if 1st is occupied with less than 2 outs, then the batter cannot advance. The runners may advance at their own risk. Therefore, if the catcher dropped the ball and the runners take off on the passed ball, then you could have the caught stealing for the other 2 outs, but highly unlikely.
2007-09-02 18:37:11 · answer #2 · answered by pricehillsaint 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it can't because if first base is occupied with less than two outs, even if the catcher drops a third strike, the batter is out. This rule is in there for the same reason the infield fly rule is there, to prevent cheap outs like this.
The uncaught third strike rule only applies when first base is unoccupied, or if there are two outs.
2007-09-02 19:12:48 · answer #3 · answered by Bigfoot 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. The batter is only allowed to try to run to first base on a dropped third strike if (a) there aren't any runners on first base, or (b) there are already 2 outs. The rule exists specifically so that nobody tries what you suggest to get a cheap double play.
2007-09-03 06:32:06 · answer #4 · answered by JerH1 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Strike out! This is only 1 out because first base was accoupied with less than 2 outs. So this would only count as 1 out.
If the runners happen to be away from the base they are at and are tagged then it could be a double or triple play, but not likely to happen
2007-09-02 18:44:16 · answer #5 · answered by Big Papi Jr 1 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Big Papi beat me to it. he only has to throw to first or tag the runner if first is unoccupied or if there are two outs. The only way to get a triple play on that would be to pick off two baserunners. That would be AWESOME!!
2007-09-02 19:05:00 · answer #6 · answered by T H 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, because the batter is out automatically; the runners aren't forced.
2007-09-02 20:04:10 · answer #7 · answered by Ryan R 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
thats not possible he would just be out.....like a forceout because the bases are full...he has no where to go...it would still be a strikeout tho
2007-09-02 18:30:22 · answer #8 · answered by albaholic 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋