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It might be because Aztlan was a Hispanic-Mexican territory before 1848. . .

2007-09-02 17:39:58 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Other - Society & Culture

10 answers

I believe that it's definitely due to geography. Mexico is located near the Southwest, and Central America is directly south of Mexico, so, when crossing the border, the Southwest happens to be the closest, most convenient location. And, it easier for these groups to maintain their ties to their own country by staying close.

2007-09-02 17:44:41 · answer #1 · answered by C. J. 5 · 1 0

It might actually be the result on the native people being conquered by Spanish speaking foreigners who then used the power of the Roman Catholic church to destroy the native languages and custom.

Also, you should note that Aztlan is the legendary ancestral home of the Nahua peoples, one of the main cultural groups in Mesoamerica. "Azteca" is the Nahuatl word for "people from Aztlan." It wasn't located in the Southwestern United States according to most of the legends.

2007-09-02 17:46:10 · answer #2 · answered by khrome_wind 5 · 2 1

b/c the Spaniards conquered all of central and south america (except brasil), and most of the caribbean. Spanish is spoken second most in most of the US because the hispanic population is so high and is growing. and plus, who takes french class over spanish in school anyways?

2007-09-02 17:47:47 · answer #3 · answered by sweatpantsbandit 2 · 1 0

Aztlan???
So I take it that you are part of the reconquista force that has been invading the US for the last 20+ years?

2007-09-02 17:49:48 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

Probably because these areas have seen a surge in their Hispanic population in the recent past.

2007-09-02 17:44:36 · answer #5 · answered by it's me 4 · 1 0

Immigration

2007-09-02 17:43:46 · answer #6 · answered by notacookiecuttergirl 2 · 1 0

Aztlan is gone forever. Accept it.

2007-09-02 17:43:30 · answer #7 · answered by John T 1 · 3 1

True, the mexicans did steal the land from the native populace before the US purchased it from them (mexico).

2007-09-02 18:01:32 · answer #8 · answered by Rossonero NorCal SFECU 7 · 0 1

because the british and french were fighting while the spanish settled south american indians.

2007-09-02 17:43:27 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

your right and because its cool

2007-09-02 17:44:00 · answer #10 · answered by Omi 1 · 1 0

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