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"There are distinct integers m and n such that 1/m + 1/n is an integer."

The only thing I can think of is the values of m and n are +1 and/or -1 for the sum of these fractions to give an integer. Other than that I am lost formulating the proof.

Thanks much for your help!

2007-09-02 07:11:29 · 3 answers · asked by canv74 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

You might also take 1/2 + 1/2 = 1. Or 1/a + 1/(-a) = 0 for any nonzero a. But notice for this kind of an existence theorem, you only need one example. Therefore, your example is a perfectly legitimate proof.

2007-09-02 07:57:34 · answer #1 · answered by Tony 7 · 0 1

1/m + 1/n = (m+n)/(mn)
If m+n = 0, then you have a solution.
Therefore, you have infinite number of solutions, since as long as m = -n = any integer other than zero, you have one solution.

2007-09-02 07:21:09 · answer #2 · answered by sahsjing 7 · 0 1

p implies q AND q implies r If q is actual then r additionally must be actual. If q is fake, we don't what r is. If p is actual then q additionally must be actual. If p is fake, we don't care what q is. If p is actual then q is actual. by using fact q is actual if p is actual, then r is likewise actual if p is actual. subsequently, p implies r. actual for all p, q, r.

2016-10-17 12:11:27 · answer #3 · answered by mayben 4 · 0 0

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