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World War II was largely made possible by

a. Great Britain's aggressive plans on Europe.

b. the failure of Britain and France to strongly oppose flagrant
German violations of the Versailles treaty.

c. Soviet expansionism and interference in western Europe's affairs.

d. the League of Nations.

2007-09-02 02:42:00 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

12 answers

b. the failure of Britain and France to strongly oppose flagrant
German violations of the Versailles treaty.

2007-09-05 23:15:19 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Wow those are some seriously crappy possible answers and does not address the Japanese aggression in the Pacific at all, a war with the US and Japan would have happened almost in any event as a result of the US oil embargo upon Japan and the attacks at Pearl Harbor.

If you have to go with something it would most probably be B or D depending on the political viewpoint of the person asking the question.

A. Great Britain had no particularly aggressive plans for Europe other than expanded trade with non-Axis nations.

B. France was quite adamant that NAZI Germany was rearming the Ruhr and Sudetenland, during this timeframe, it was possible that had England and the other members of the League forced Germany to capitulate it would have been an early "defeat" for Hitler. England and other nations did not take France's warning seriously and Hitler continued his march toward war.

C. Soviet European Expansionism was to an extent encouraged by Hitler.

D. The League of nations - here again, this is mostly a result of the league suffering from the combination of conflicting opinion and conflicting motivations on the part of the member-states.

To that end , the UN suffers the same problem today, where the US, UK, and other democracies might want to act on some matter i.e.; Darfur but are prevented by other interests Islamic states voting as a bloc, the Russian and Chinese veto in the Security Council.


---- The proper answer ---

The failure of the Treaty of Versailles, after World War 1, to more comprehensively deal with what was truely wrong with Prussia (Germany/Hungary and parts of Poland) and impose ruinous reparations upon the German people caused resentment, economic hardship and ultimately was the breeding ground for the political attitudes and public sentiment that allowed Hitler to operate.

Had Wiemar Germany been more prosperous during
the late 20's and into the 30's or had the League retired the reparations at the beginning of the depression, the war might have been avoided because Hitler's main points of agitation would have had less merit.

2007-09-02 04:02:47 · answer #2 · answered by Mark T 7 · 1 3

Reviewing your other questions it certainly appears that you are using Yahoo/Answers to do your home work. Beside the fact that you are in the wrong category for requesting such assistance, a little study would provide a better education.

For this particular question Mark T has provided an excellent answer. At the same time I agree with Lucee for the same reason (having been born prior to World War II).

If you had actually studied the subject you would have learned why these particular answers are not fully reflective of those times and can lead one to erroneous conclusions. Many factors contributed to what led to World War II not the least of which was national pride of restraints applied to the German states (Germany as a modern nation was actually a collection of various national entities). The depression had people totally losing their economic foundations and this was no less true to the Germans as well as other national peoples. The appeasement positions of other European States also didn’t work to maintain peace (as it never does).

After a brief period of prosperity during the mid-1920s, came the Great Depression, which destroyed what remained of the German middle class and paved the way for the dictatorship of Adolf Hitler. During the Hitler era (1933-45), the economy developed a hothouse prosperity, supported with high government subsidies to those sectors that Hitler favored because they gave Germany military power and economic autarchy, that is, economic independence from the global economy.

2007-09-02 04:52:48 · answer #3 · answered by Randy 7 · 0 2

b. the failure of Britain and France to strongly oppose flagrant
German violations of the Versailles treaty

2007-09-02 03:44:43 · answer #4 · answered by emperor_of_the_north_pole 2 · 1 4

It's B. The French & British were feeling sorry for the Germans; feeling the Treaty of Versailles had been too harsh. Their leaders were also in no mood for another war. In appeasing Hitler, they hoped to avoid conflict. Of course, that didn't happen...

2007-09-02 03:58:46 · answer #5 · answered by BethS 6 · 0 3

You don't think it could have been because a lunatic called
A-dolf wanted to rule the world? He even had plans to invade your country. I object to the statement, "Great britains aggressive plans on Europe". G.B. has given far more to the World than it has ever taken back, and the only country that has paid in full, the monies and munitions it borrowed from the U.S. to help exterminate the nazi evil.
Please double check your history books!

2007-09-02 02:52:09 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

I'd say C and D, but mostly because of Soviet expansionism and wanting to interfere in western Europe's affairs.

2007-09-02 02:51:25 · answer #7 · answered by Green Phantom 5 · 0 4

E. None of the above

More caused by the aggressive and expansionistic nature of the Nazis, Italians, and the Japanese.

2007-09-02 03:24:36 · answer #8 · answered by Bob D 6 · 2 3

The answer is in the reading assignment. Read it again.

2007-09-02 02:55:31 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

Is this some kind of homework test? If so, the answer is b.

2007-09-02 02:50:36 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

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