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2007-09-01 03:55:01 · 10 answers · asked by sylvia 1 in Arts & Humanities Books & Authors

10 answers

No.

All of Shakespeare's works represents the beginnings of Modern English. You are required to read these three authors while in grade school: Beowulf; Chaucer; and Bill Shakes, to show the changing development of English.

1. BEOWULF: an example of OLD ENGLISH

2. CHAUCER (The Canterbury Tales): an example of MIDDLE ENGLISH

3. SHAKESPEARE (Hamlet): An example of the beginning of Modern English.

Since the English language has evolved these three works are perfect teaching tools of the 'noun shift' and how English has changed over the past 1,000 years.

BEOWULF is the oldest existing manuscript written in English.

The CANTERBURY TALES is one of the greatest poems ever written, but it is written in Middle English.

2007-09-01 04:20:21 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

Hamlet Written

2016-11-14 08:56:48 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Hamlet by William Shakespeare

Study Guides:

Features: Chapter-By-Chapter Summary and Commentary, Plot Summary, Character Descriptions, Literary Analysis - Themes, Point of View, Form & Structure, Style, Author Description, Study Quiz

http://www.bookrags.com/notes/ham/

http://barronsbooknotes.com/booknotes/MonkeyNotes/pmHamlet02.asp

http://www.sparknotes.com/shakespeare/hamlet/

http://www.cummingsstudyguides.net/xHamlet.html

http://www.gradesaver.com/classicnotes/titles/hamlet/

http://www.cliffsnotes.com/WileyCDA/LitNote/id-121.html

ARTICLES

http://www.theatrehistory.com/british/shakespeare.html

2007-09-01 07:58:39 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Hamlet is not written in "Old English," it's early modern English. If you google it you'll find no end of critical interpretation and analysis. That's a ridiculous question to have to use to write about Hamlet, but the "injustice" is the murder of the King, Hamlet's father. As to how much "self-respect" is involved here, well... good luck with that.

2016-03-13 01:20:27 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No. Shakespeare is middle English since he wrote for Queen Elizabeth I.

from wiki
Old English was one of the first vernacular languages to be written down. Some of the most important surviving works of Old English literature are Beowulf, an epic poem; the Anglo-Saxon Chronicle, a record of early English history; and Caedmon's Hymn, a Christian religious poem. There are also a number of extant prose works, such as sermons and saints' lives, biblical translations, and translated Latin works of the early Church Fathers, legal documents, such as laws and wills, and practical works on grammar, medicine, and geography. Still, poetry is considered to be the heart of Old English literature. Nearly all Anglo-Saxon authors are anonymous, with a few exceptions, such as Bede and Caedmon.


Middle English is the name given by historical linguistics to the diverse forms of the English language spoken between the Norman invasion of 1066 and the mid-to-late 15th century, when the Chancery Standard, a form of London-based English, began to become widespread, a process aided by the introduction of the printing press into England by William Caxton in the 1470s, and slightly later by Richard Pynson. By this time the Northumbrian dialect spoken in south east Scotland was developing into the Scots language. The language of England as spoken after this time, up to 1650, is known as Early Modern English.

2007-09-01 04:06:40 · answer #5 · answered by redunicorn 7 · 1 0

No. Old English was used from c450-1150, and Shakespeare wrote Hamlet (first printed) in 1603. It would've been written in a form called Elizabethan English.

2007-09-01 04:47:57 · answer #6 · answered by Kristie 3 · 1 0

I assume (like the others) that you refer to Shakespear's play. But there were earlier versions of the story, most notably one by Saxo Grammaticus a Danish writer (who I guess wrote in Latin or Danish).

If you look at the definitions copied from Wikipedia, you will see that Shakespeare wrote in "early modern English".

This is the same version that was used in the earliest colonies in the US.

Although the spelling and some words are unusual, Shakespear can be read without need for translation.

2007-09-01 04:27:56 · answer #7 · answered by Beardo 7 · 1 0

No, Old English is a Gernanic language that you cannot understand without studying it. Chaucer is Middle English, and many cannot understand him now. Shakespeare wrote in Modern English.

2007-09-01 04:03:38 · answer #8 · answered by miyuki & kyojin 7 · 1 0

That was Shakespeare's language. So YES

TW K

2007-09-01 04:01:22 · answer #9 · answered by TW K 7 · 0 2

No.

2007-09-01 04:00:51 · answer #10 · answered by Night 2 · 0 0

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