Since he entered a plea of guilty, and such a plea entry is made under oath (as stated on the paperwork he signed at the time of the entry of his plea), and he is now saying he is not guilty... doesn't that mean he committed perjury?
2007-08-31 18:14:10 · 18 answers · asked by Bush Invented the Google 6 in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
I believe his position now is that he feels that he should not have pled guilty because he didn't do anything wrong. If he entered a guilty plea, he was admitting to wrongdoing - regardless of the charge, he was admitting breaking the law, and he now says he didn't break the law.
2007-08-31 18:20:44 · update #1
bgee: I'm going to need you to explain why that means I'm not allowed to have an opinion or discuss the matter.
2007-08-31 18:23:44 · update #2
Wouldn't it just be the ultimate irony? I really, really hope that he is innocent. It's good to see someone who used hatred of gays for political gain to be on the receiving end of the suspicion and hate he's fostered.
2007-08-31 18:33:51 · answer #1 · answered by God 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
You cannot commit perjury while pleading during arraignment or copping a plea later on because both of those are admissions of guilt/non-guilt and are not sworn testimonies offered as evidence in a court of law.
It doesn't make him any less of a scumbag tho.
2007-09-01 02:02:19 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
My thinking exactly!
But the most bizarre thing of all is...., why did he say he needed toilet paper and was picking up a piece (of someone else's) off the bathroom floor?
WHO DOES THAT?
Craig is, at the very least, a Bisexual Urinal Republican Perjurer, otherwise known as B.U.R.P.
.
2007-09-01 01:54:10 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. He is a liar, not a perjurer. Perjury only occurs when sworn under oath and testifying before a legal committee (jury, congress, panel and such).
2007-09-01 01:37:23 · answer #4 · answered by Chi Guy 5 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Arguably, but he would never get convicted of it. All he has to say is that he did not want to incriminate himself. I'm sure everyone remembers Clinton's "I do not recollect" argument. Still, Craig did something illegal and should suffer the consequences of those actions.
2007-09-01 01:35:27 · answer #5 · answered by DOOM 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Arguably, yes -- but in a legal context, a guilty plea only applies to the facts stipulated to in the plea agreement.
Reading his actual plea (link below) -- he only admitted to certain actions that fell within the "disorderly conduct" charge -- he's still free to refute anything else that he was alleged to have done.
2007-09-01 01:18:06 · answer #6 · answered by coragryph 7 · 4⤊ 2⤋
,probably is and should be punished to the fullest extent of the law, but I am pretty sure, as I am that O.J. is guilty that Bill Clinton COMMITTED perjury as well, 2 rights don't make a wrong,
2007-09-01 01:29:38 · answer #7 · answered by dez604 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
not necessarily. if what he said under oath is true then he has not committed perjury. perjury is making untruthful statements under oath.
2007-09-01 01:25:50 · answer #8 · answered by pdacayo 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
He is way full of crap. Sorry but he IS gay or he would not have been cruising a potty for action. What a load of crap. No dude plays footsie with another dude unless he wants some action. He's just pissed that his little charade got exposed. MAYBE cruising for *** is not wrong - but he is married, and a public servant. What is it that makes people think that their sins should be covered (attempted adultery) when they lead a public life?
2007-09-01 01:22:56 · answer #9 · answered by justbeingher 7 · 2⤊ 3⤋
Innocent until proven guilty goes for everybody including conservatives.
2007-09-01 01:26:45 · answer #10 · answered by Yaktivistdotcom 5 · 3⤊ 2⤋