2007-08-31 11:34:25 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Yes & the sky above it too.
2007-08-31 11:41:43 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
not exactly, you must read the deed of sale, usually it says that you own the land on top of the earth and that anything beneath it is the original owners property. Such as mineral rights, oil rights, water rights etc. You can sale your property but that original owner will if they had it put in the deed of sale will always own those rights.
But....if it is not so stated you own it. I understand that the city of Arlington in Texas is trying to buy up every homeowners mineral rights to their property for $1500 dollars. Seems cities are beginning to drill for natural gas and they want the rights to do so. Wonder if they will sometime in the future claim imminent domain and take that personal property for their own???
2007-08-31 18:47:38 · answer #2 · answered by kickinupfunf 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO! Sometimes you do if you have the Mineral Rights.
That should be ask when the property is bought,That would mean that if there is Oil or gas,Even gold.Any Minerals.And should be stated on the deed.
JOHNNY WALKER
BIRMINGHAM,ALABAMA
I have land in Wyoming,But don't have the mineral rights.It has oil under the land and i Lease the land to Standerd Oil.
They have to pay Royolties on what they produce monthly.
2007-08-31 21:03:49 · answer #3 · answered by jwalker1597 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the country, state, and county that you live in. It should stipulate in the deed.
In the state of South Dakota (for example), the answer is yes. This stems from the gold rush days and staking miners claims. However - this law varies from state to state (and even county to county) in some cases.
2007-08-31 19:24:11 · answer #4 · answered by aa889d 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Right through to the other side. Then you gotta go around the world kick 'em all off YOUR land over there in China.
So what does this have to do with marriage and divorce?
2007-08-31 19:06:48 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
That depends upon the laws of the country where the land is located.
2007-08-31 18:45:35 · answer #6 · answered by Mathsorcerer 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If they check their deeds to the land they will probably find they don't own any mineral rights to whats under it.
2007-08-31 18:41:27 · answer #7 · answered by john m 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No they wouldn't own water or gas pipes that are underneath it. If oil was ever found there you could be sure they wouldn't, the government would.
2007-08-31 18:43:23 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well, remember this too: the government, if it absolutely needed it, could expropriate said land.
2007-08-31 21:21:01 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No they only own the top few feet or so.
2007-08-31 18:39:53 · answer #10 · answered by jeanimus 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋