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4 answers

Neither.

note, for instance, that f(-1) is undefined;
thus, nethier
f(-1) = f(1)
nor
f(-1) = -f(1)

is true.

2007-08-31 11:48:42 · answer #1 · answered by chancebeaube 3 · 0 0

I disagree with both previous answers.

Assuming that x>0 so that you're only dealing with real numbers, then regardless of the result of x^(2/3) when you multiply it by 4 then the product is divisible by 2 since 4 is divisible by 2.

Hence, for x>=0; f(x) is even.

Btw, zero is even.

2007-08-31 11:42:43 · answer #2 · answered by modulo_function 7 · 0 3

It is either even or irrational. If x^(2/3) is an integer (example 8^(2/3)=4), any integer multiplied by 4 is even.

2007-08-31 11:31:36 · answer #3 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 1 5

f(-x) = f(x), so f(x) is even

2007-08-31 11:39:14 · answer #4 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 3 1

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