I'm kind of shaky on this, and was wondering in what situations can the batter run to first on the 3rd strike.. Let's say it's 2 strikes and it's a CRAZY pitch, could the batter simply swing to get the strike and then run to first?
2007-08-30 14:38:50 · 10 answers · asked by Kevin 2 in Sports ➔ Baseball
Technically, yes, he could swing and run.
One exception to the "dropped third strike" rule:
If less than two are out and first base is occupied, he is automatically out and cannot run to first. If two are out or first base is open, he can run.
To clarify ambiguities about a catcher "controlling" the ball, etc.: a batter can run when the ball touches the ground, whether or not the catcher "controls" it. He can scoop it cleanly off the ground, but if it touches the ground, the batter can run. A batter may run if the third strike is not "legally caught," as described in the rulebook:
6.05
A batter is out when --
(b) A third strike is legally caught by the catcher;
Rule 6.05(b) Comment: “Legally caught” means in the catcher’s glove before the ball touches the ground. It is not legal if the ball lodges in his clothing or paraphernalia; or if it touches the umpire and is caught by the catcher on the rebound.
If a foul-tip first strikes the catcher’s glove and then goes on through and is caught by both hands against his body or protector, before the ball touches the ground, it is a strike, and if third strike, batter is out. If smothered against his body or protector, it is a catch provided the ball struck the catcher’s glove or hand first.
2007-08-30 14:53:03 · answer #1 · answered by Wiseguy 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes a batter could do that but most don't. The rule is if first base is empty and the 3rd strike is dropped by the catcher, the batter can run to first.
2007-08-30 14:43:18 · answer #2 · answered by Steven 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Most of the previous answers are right. Basically the rule applies when either first base is open, or there are 2 outs. The one interesting thing about the rule is that when the situation arises, that is, a dropped 3rd strike with first base open or with 2 outs, the batter is technically not out until either a throw is made to first base to put him out, or he is tagged out. The plate umpire in this case has to make 2 calls - first, he has to make the strike call, but he has to wait to make the out call until the hitter is actually put out.
2007-08-31 04:36:37 · answer #3 · answered by artistictrophy@sbcglobal.net 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If the catcher doesn't cleanly catch the ball, the batter can try to make it to first unless there's a runner already there and less than 2 outs.
2007-08-30 16:02:55 · answer #4 · answered by JerH1 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yeah as long as there is 2 strikes and the ball is not caught by the catcher the batter can runto first.
2007-08-30 15:11:23 · answer #5 · answered by † The God That Cannot Be †™ 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
It depends on three things. First, the catcher must not cleanly catch the ball.
If there are two outs, then the answer is always yes.
If there are less than two outs, then the batter may attempt to reach first base safely if there is no runner already there.
2007-08-30 14:54:41 · answer #6 · answered by Tom K 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The ball has to hit the ground, either before or after the catcher catches it. If it's a pitch in the dirt, or the catcher doesn't field it cleanly, then you can run to first.
2007-08-30 15:05:10 · answer #7 · answered by joecon113 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If the catcher doesnt have possesion of the baseball or cant handle or control it. The batter is allowed to run to first
2007-08-30 14:43:39 · answer #8 · answered by Jay 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
yes if its a third strike and the Catcher misses the ball you can try to make it to first base
2007-08-30 14:47:56 · answer #9 · answered by jobu 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes he could run to first on a crazy pitch if he swung at it but if first is occupied you cannot go even if the person on first begins to run.
2007-08-30 15:04:17 · answer #10 · answered by zac e 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋