When a man says NO, he's gay.. But, when a woman says NO, it's rape. Why?

Question

When a woman forces herself on a man and the man refuses, he's considered gay and the justice system does nothing about it. But when a man forces himself on a woman, it's considered rape. Why the double standard?

Answer 1

Your perceptions are idiotic !!!

Answer 2

Just legally speaking, rape consists of sexual contact or sexual penetration + intent to do it + no consent or not good consent (i.e. drunk, drugged, coerced into it, etc.)

I don't think there's any double-standard in the way the criminal statutes for rape are drafted. It's that just physically speaking, physiologically speaking, how many times are you gonna have an occurrence by a woman with a male victim that fits these conditions? There's also the thing of, just how many guys, supposing it did happen, are gonna come to the authorities and say, look, this this and that happened, and are going to go through with the case? I'm sure there's one who exists, who would, but I've never heard of it!!!

Answer 3

As a matter of law, there is no double standard -- a person can be convicted of rape if the other person does not consent, regardless of the genders involved -- and there have been many cases where women have been convicted of rape.

What happens in the media and in public opinion is a different matter -- and one that is outside the scope of the legal field.

Answer 4

Because men have issue with being seen as "victim" in crimes like rape, where it is all about power, not sex.

It is social thing. I think a man would be better able to explain it, but I think I got it with the statement above.

Answer 5

The same reason a woman slaps a man on a soap and she's a "you go girl hero" but if a man did it to a woman (which they shouldn't) he is everything wrong with society...


sigh

Answer 6

Its because sterotypes we have now. Men can get raped.

Answer 7

BECAUSE MEN HAVE TREATED WOMEN LIKE SHIEET FOR CENTURIES.NOW ITS OUR TURN.