2007-08-28 06:08:40 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
By convenience and definition.
A prime number has exactly two distinct divisors, 1 and itself.
1 does not meet those requirements.
Also, every number can be represented as a unique combination of prime numbers:
600 = 2^3x3^1x5^2
if 1 were a prime number, you could write:
600 = 1^1x2^3x3^1x5^2
but also
600 = 1^18987x2^3x3^1x5^2
No longer unique.
2007-08-28 06:14:55 · answer #1 · answered by stym 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
By definition. A integer positive number is prime if it's greater than 1 and is divisible only by 1 and by itself.
2007-08-28 15:16:42 · answer #2 · answered by Steiner 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The question rather is: ¿Why is number 1 a prime number?
Because, dividing it with any number except itself will not result in a whole number without remainder or fraction.
2007-09-01 05:46:17 · answer #3 · answered by Jun Agruda 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
A prime number is defined as being divisible only by one and itself. Since 1 is itself then it doesn't make sense to define it as a prime number.
2007-08-28 13:14:35 · answer #4 · answered by Snakeyes 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Because it is a perfect square and thus does not meet the definition of a prime number.
2007-08-28 13:13:36 · answer #5 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
A prime number is any number that can only be divided by 1 and itself. The number 1 IS a prime number. Whoever told you differently is incorrect.
2007-08-28 13:12:38 · answer #6 · answered by Scruff 2 · 1⤊ 5⤋
becuse it divides 1
factors of 1 must be excluded from prime numbers business.
2007-08-28 13:13:25 · answer #7 · answered by Alexander 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I have always been taught that it is neither prime nor composite.
2007-08-28 13:18:26 · answer #8 · answered by Howdy! 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
By definition, it is. 0 is not prime (because division by 1 is undetermined)
2007-08-28 13:13:08 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 4⤋
Because you can't devide it by another except by itself..
2007-08-28 13:15:45 · answer #10 · answered by Dragon'sFire 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋