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see above. im pretty sure its 1 buuut just to make sure..

2007-08-28 03:09:17 · 7 answers · asked by rock it ! 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

7 answers

No. But 0 is a solution. 0 + cos(0) = 0 + 1 = 1.

Let's analyse if there's another solution. Put f(x) - x + cos(x). Then, f'(x) = 1 - sin(x) >=0 for every x. . We have f'(x) = 0 whenever sin(x) =1, that is, when x = 2kpi + pi/2. But these points are not extermum points, because f' doesn't change from positive to negative, we have f'(x) >=0 for every x. So, f is increasing, so that f vanishes if and only if x = 0. No other solutio,

2007-08-28 03:24:19 · answer #1 · answered by Steiner 7 · 0 0

it is 1

2007-08-28 10:15:41 · answer #2 · answered by Navita 3 · 0 1

The value of cos0 is 1. So if we suppose X is 0, then X +cosx=0+cos0=0+1=1
Therefore the value of X is 0 and not 1.

2007-08-28 10:19:46 · answer #3 · answered by spandanaraj b 2 · 0 0

i think zero, because cos0=1 then according to question
if you put x=0 then
0 + cos 0 = 1

2007-08-28 10:54:22 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

zero.

Cos(0) = 1.

So, 0 + Cos(0) = 1.

2007-08-28 10:16:26 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

i don't know I'm only in grade 8

2007-08-28 10:14:55 · answer #6 · answered by vidkid234 3 · 0 0

zero

2007-08-31 10:34:07 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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