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is (x^3+a^3) always precisely divisible by (x+a)? What's the proof?

Thanks

2007-08-28 01:20:07 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

It is not divisible by x+a if x+a=0, because nothing is divisble by zero (not even zero).

2007-08-28 01:43:29 · answer #1 · answered by Peter P 1 · 0 0

x^3+a^3 = (x+a) ( x^2-ax + a^2)

(x+a) ( x^2-ax + a^2) = x^3 - ax^2 + a^2x + ax^2 - a^2x + a^3
. . . . . . . . . . .. = x^3+a^3

(x+a) . . .. is a factor

2007-08-28 08:28:52 · answer #2 · answered by CPUcate 6 · 1 1

Yes.
x³+a³ = (x+a)(x²-ax+a²).

2007-08-28 10:38:32 · answer #3 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0 0

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