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in maths,topic of limits....

we know,,if limit x->0 tanx/x=1
sinx/x=1
cosx/x=1 if limit x tends to zero
my question is this ,is that possible
cotx/x=1
cosecx/x=1
secx/x=1 iff limit x tends to zero

2007-08-27 15:52:32 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

let's see:

cotx / x = 1/ xtanx = x/ x² tanx = (x / tanx) (1/x²)
limx->0 (x / tanx) (1/x²) = (1) (∞) = ∞

cosecx / x = 1 / x sinx = x / x² sinx = (x / sinx) (1/x²)
limx->0 (x / sinx) (1/x²) = (1)((∞) = ∞

secx / x = 1 / x cosx = x / x² cosx = (x / cosx) (1/x²)
limx->0 (x / cosx) (1/x²) = (1)((∞) = ∞

2007-08-27 16:18:06 · answer #1 · answered by ignoramus_the_great 7 · 0 0

just evaluate the derivitives of the co-functions. This will tell you.

2007-08-27 22:58:38 · answer #2 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 0 0

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