"The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people."
Do you believe that the federal government obeys this part of the bill of rights? Can the bill of rights exist if it is selectively enforced?
2007-08-27 11:16:53 · 2 answers · asked by freedom first 5 in Politics & Government ➔ Government
This means that any authority not specifically given to the federal government in the Constitution itself, any authority not prohibited by the Constitution to the States, are expressly given to the States and We, the People.
In other words, the Feds can only have power that is specifically assigned to it through the Constitution or the states are forbidden from a certain power.
All other authority belongs, and rightly so, with the States and Citizens.
No, I believe the feds are completely overstepping their powers and need to be brought back down to our Constitutional level.
2007-08-27 11:37:42 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
Yes the government obeys this amendment. It is not selectively enforced. I'd look at any example that says otherwise however.
2007-08-27 11:31:46 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋