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If so, would it keep going up degree for degree--for instance, 50 degrees C would be 82 degrees F?

2007-08-26 13:46:10 · 11 answers · asked by Holiday Magic 7 in Science & Mathematics Weather

Hey Guys: I don't do algebra, so please quit the formulas (or do them in 'regular' math).

2007-08-26 15:38:46 · update #1

11 answers

Every 1 degree of C you add you add 1.8 of F.Most of the world uses C because it is alot easier to understand.I know it is confusing.

2007-08-26 15:58:16 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Not quite. The reason is that a Celsius degree is larger than a Fahrenheit degree.
From freezing to boiling in Celsius is a range of 100 degrees.
But in Fahrenheit, its a range of 180 degrees (32 to 212).
So its not a one-to-one relationship.

To easily convert C to F, take the temperature in Celsius, double it, then add 32. So 50 C is 132 F (well, not exactly but its close enough for normal daily life).

2007-08-26 13:56:14 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Yes to the first question, no to the second question. Each degree C is worth 1.8 degree F. So 50X1.8=90, and then add 32, so 50 C=122 F. Most people who grow up using Celsius degrees think that Fahrenheit is stupid and antequated, but I can't agree with them. To fully understand the Fahrenheit scale, you must understand how the German guy who invented it came up with it. He first made a thermometer, which of course was blank, with no scale of degrees on it, because no one had done this before. He put it outdoors on the coldest night of the year (in Germany) and marked that as zero, and then he stuck it in his rectum (no fooling) and obtained his rectal temperature and marked that 100 degrees (The normal human rectal temperature is ~99.6 F). He then fiddled with the numbers slightly in order to get exactly 180 degrees between the freezing point of water the boiling point of water, which turn out to be 32 F and 212 F, respectively. You might still be thinking, THIS IS CRAZY!! However, the Fahrenheit scale does divide the temperature scale into roughly 100 degrees that actually span the gammut of nearly all everyday temperatures throughout the year. Thus, anything below zero F is REALLY COLD and anything over 100 F is REALLY HOT. (And this was WAY before Paris Hilton thought things were hot!) I hope this helps.

2007-08-26 13:52:30 · answer #3 · answered by Sciencenut 7 · 1 1

Yes & No 0 degrees C does equal 32 degrees F. However it does not go up in increments here is a formula for turning Farenheit to Celcius [°C] = ([°F] − 32)5/9 and here is for turning Celcius into Farenheit [°F] = [°C] · 9/5 + 32

2007-08-26 14:09:16 · answer #4 · answered by justagoodollboy313 1 · 0 0

0 degrees C=32 degrees F
To change C to F, multiply C by 1.8 and add 32, so 50 C would be 122 F.

2007-08-26 13:55:54 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Using this formula Tc=5/9 X (tf-32) you will get the correct translation.

2007-08-26 13:53:37 · answer #6 · answered by trey98607 7 · 0 0

yes to the first question, and no to the 2nd. 50 degrees Celsius would be 122 degrees Fahrenheit.


here is a page on the conversion http://www.csgnetwork.com/tempconvjava.html

2007-08-26 13:56:26 · answer #7 · answered by dvinakovsky 2 · 1 0

you are correct in your original assumption. for additional conversions, the formula is

Fahrenheit=9/5 Celsius + 32

2007-08-26 13:54:21 · answer #8 · answered by Kevin J 2 · 0 0

Yes, that's close enough.

However, 50 C = 122 F

2007-08-26 13:53:07 · answer #9 · answered by shire_maid 6 · 0 0

0C = 32F true ... yippee !

but 100C = 212 F
C = 5/9 * (F -32)

2007-08-26 14:09:50 · answer #10 · answered by mark 6 · 0 0

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