If f(x) = ax^2 + bx + c, where a, b, and c are real numbers, and f(x) > 0 for all x, then does 'a' have to be positive? Who can prove this? I have tried some arguments using concepts from calculus but have not, to my mind, been successful. It's driving me crazy, so I'd love it if one of you can produce a clear, cogent proof that 'a' has to be positive if f is everywhere positive.
2007-08-26
04:10:23
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6 answers
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asked by
AxiomOfChoice
2
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics
After considering the first 6 or so responses, it seems that Dr. Ivan has the most rigorous response, but I feel that he makes an unwarranted assumption; namely, that b^2 - 4ac < 0. I do not see why this has to be the case. Can someone shed some light on this issue?
2007-08-26
06:36:00 ·
update #1