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From somewhere I recall that the term bourgeois may have come from a French word for the middle class merchants and tradesmen - the so called 'burgers' in the German medieval towns.
I just need confirmation if possible. I have not found this easily by internet search engines. Thanks!

2007-08-25 15:46:11 · 8 answers · asked by Spreedog 7 in Arts & Humanities History

8 answers

Bourgeoisie (RP /ˌbɔː.ʒwɑːˈzi/, GA /ˌbu.ʒwɑˈzi/; ʒ=zh) is a classification used in analysing human societies to describe a social class of people who are in the upper or merchant class, whose status or power comes from employment, education, and wealth as opposed to aristocratic origin. Petite bourgeoisie is used to describe the class below the bourgeoisie but above the Proletariat.

In a capitalist society the term often refers to the owning and ruling classes. The term is widely used in many non-English speaking countries as an approximate equivalent of middle class (found in the Communist Manifesto by Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels), but in English speaking countries usage of the word as a term of art is associated with those with socialist or anti-capitalist political leanings.

In common usage the term has pejorative connotations suggesting either undeserved wealth, or lifestyles, tastes, and opinions that lack the sophistication of the rich or the authenticity of the intellectual or the poor. It is rare for people in the English speaking world to self-identify as members of the bourgeoisie, although many self-identify as middle class, which some would argue is technically bourgeoisie or more exactly 'petite bourgeoisie'. In the United States, where social class affiliation lacks some of the structure and rules of many other nations, Bourgeoisie is sometimes used to refer to those seen as being upper class.

Bourgeoisie is a French word that was borrowed directly into English in the specific sense described above. In the French feudal order pre-revolution, "bourgeois" was a class of citizens who were wealthier members of the Third Estate, but were overtaxed and had none of the privileges which the aristocracy held (however many bourgeoisie bought their way into nobility; see Venal Office).

Bourgeoisie were defined by conditions such as length of residence and source of income. The word evolved to mean merchants and traders, and until the 19th century was mostly synonymous with the middle class (persons in the broad socioeconomic spectrum between nobility and serfs or proletarians). Then, as the power and wealth of the nobility faded in the second half of the 19th century, the bourgeoisie emerged as the new ruling class.

The French word bourgeois evolved from the Old French word burgeis, meaning "an inhabitant of a town" (cf. Middle English burgeis, Middle Dutch burgher and German Bürger). The Old French word burgeis is derived from bourg, meaning a market town or medieval village, itself derived from Late Latin burgus, meaning "fortress"[1]

2007-08-25 15:55:06 · answer #1 · answered by srmm 5 · 2 1

In a way yes. The term 'bourgeois' is in fact French, but it derives from the same sources as the German word 'Bürger' - as you have rightfully stated: it described in the medieval the inhabitants of a (mostly 'free') town.

2007-08-26 00:31:09 · answer #2 · answered by dancer9776 2 · 0 0

Several of these answers are at least partly correct, but missing some information. Karl Marx used both the German term "Bürger" and the French term "Bourgeoisie" (or the adjectives "bürgerliche" and "bourgeois," respectively) more or less interchangeably. For instance, in the Communist Manifesto, he writes about the "bürgerliche Gesellschaft" and then the "Bourgeoisie" only a few paragraphs later, in a section called "Bourgeois und Proletarier" (bourgeois and proletarian). In so doing, Marx was following, and yet altering, the use of terms employed by Hegel, especially in his book "The Philosophy of Right" (Marx had written "A Contribution to the Critique of Hegel's Philosophy of Right," in which he closely analyzed this book, shortly before he and Engels wrote the Communist Manifesto.).
Although the German word "Bürger" is usually simply translated as "citizen," (and reasonably so: "Burg" in German means "city," while "citizen" originally referred to one who lives in a city - both being used as translations of the Latin concept of "civitas," which is in turn derived from the Greek notion of membership of a city-state, or polis), Hegel distinguishes very sharply between a Bürger and a citizen, explicitly using the French terms "bourgeois" and "citoyen" to make this distinction. For Hegel, a mere Bürger only participated in "bürgerliche Gesellschaft" -usually translated as "civil society" - in which each person merely asserts his or her own particular desire, and in which "Reason" (Vernunft) was merely an "appearance" (Schein) - two words with important and complex meanings for Hegel which we need not get into here. Upon the establishment and development of the state, however, this bürger is transformed into a citoyen, a citizen, and his or her particular interests, through a complex process, attain universality. This is primarily because the state makes possible law, which is based on universal individual rights - the law, if it is truly the law, and not a despotic command, applies equally to everyone, including those in power. Autonomy consists in creating laws for oneself (auto = self; nomos = law).
In describing the Bürger who was bourgeois and not yet citoyen, Hegel was clearly drawing on earlier French ideas. The term bourgeois was first used in the modern sense by the French playwright Moliere, for instance in his play "La Bourgeois Gentilhomme" (the bourgeois gentleman), and later examined in a much fuller sense by the philosopher Jean-Jacques Rousseau. It's important to point out that in these early uses of the term, the writers were being just as highly critical of the bourgeoisie as Marx would be, but from a very different perspective. For instance, whereas Marx contrasted the bourgeoisie with the proletariat (the working class), Moliere made fun of the bourgeoisie from the perspective of the even higher class, the aristocracy.
To make matters even more complex, before the French OR the German terms, there is an even older, related term, "burgerlijk" from Dutch. In a very long and complex series of wars from 1566 to 1648, the Netherlands managed to free themselves from the Hapsburg Empire in Spain. These cities, before and during this complex history of emancipation, developed a specific cultural character, which also had a lot to do with Catholic/Protestant conflict (see Weber's analysis). And even before this, there were "free cities" in Germany, that had a complex arrangement of self-government within the Holy Roman Empire.... not to mention the Republics of Venice and Florence etc., which go back to Medieval times. So, it's complicated.

2014-11-12 03:47:48 · answer #3 · answered by Ian 1 · 0 0

haha this is so random, I dont really know how to spell the ones I know other than Scheißekopf(shithead) and Scheiße(sh*t) or hinden(b*tch)! I will take note of the other ones! ... ... very useful if I ever get in a fight with a german person!

2016-05-17 23:51:36 · answer #4 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

1564, "of the Fr. middle class," from Fr., from O.Fr. burgeis "town dweller" (as distinct from "peasant"), from borc "town, village," from Frank. *burg (see borough). Sense of "socially or aesthetically conventional" is from 1764; in communist and socialist writing, "a capitalist" (1883). Bourgeoisie (n.) "middle class" is first recorded 1707.

2007-08-25 17:16:57 · answer #5 · answered by lihanmu 3 · 0 0

The word is French and I always have interpreted its meaning as a description of snobs.

2007-08-25 16:20:44 · answer #6 · answered by margo 2 · 0 0

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bourgeois

2007-08-25 15:52:05 · answer #7 · answered by espangor 3 · 0 0

u hit it on the head,that is correct

2007-08-25 19:06:45 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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