Please help and explain. My friend DUMBNutGobbler wasted all his daily questions asking for help, and I can't help him either. So now I'm asking.
2007-08-25 07:29:51 · 6 answers · asked by ♫MizzUnderstood♫ 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
sorry for the misunderstanding the question actually is
4w-2(1-w)=-38
not
4w-2(1w)=-38
2007-08-25 07:43:12 · update #1
4w - 2(1 - w) = - 38
4w - 2 + 2w = - 38
6w = - 36
w = - 6
2007-08-25 07:48:25 · answer #1 · answered by Como 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Wouldnt you distribute the -2(a million-w) to -2+2w, then you definately've the equation 4w-2+2w=-38 combine like words, 6w-2=-38 upload 2 to the two aspects to do away with it on left part,6w=-36 divide by employing 6, then you definately've w=6 and thats your very final answer
2017-01-05 05:50:29 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
w= -19
4w-2(1w)=-38
4w-2w=-38
2w=-38
-38/2=w
w=-19
worked out
4(-19) - 2(1 * -19)= -38
-76 - 2(-19) = -38
-76 - -38 = -38
(- a negative = a positive) so...
-76 + 38 = -38
Hope that helped
2007-08-25 07:43:12 · answer #3 · answered by calcdffirefighter 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
4w-2(1w)=-38
4w-2w=-38
2w=-38
w=-19
2007-08-25 07:40:39 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
4w-2(1-w)=-38
4w-2+2w=-38
6w-2=-38
6w=-36
w=-6
2007-08-25 07:38:09 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
I think the answer is w= -18. . . But don't always trust me.
2007-08-25 08:03:24 · answer #6 · answered by s. 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋