1. i have run
2. i have ran
2007-08-24 21:25:02 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
It is definitely "I have run".
You say "I ran", "I have run".
.
2007-08-24 21:39:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
The English verb "to run" is an irregular verb that derives from a Germanic "strong verb".
The simple past is "ran" whilst the past participle is run. Hence "I have run".
2007-08-25 09:35:26 · answer #2 · answered by Beardo 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I believe that "I have ran" is the "correct" usage, but "I have run" is popular among a number of North American dialects as well.
2007-08-25 04:30:40 · answer #3 · answered by Expat Mike 7 · 0⤊ 4⤋
The answer cliffordex has given is correct.
I ran.
I have run.
2007-08-25 05:55:05 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Iran? o.o
2007-08-25 07:25:32 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋