In some countires in Europe the age of consent is 13, does that mean that potentially a grown man can have sex with a 13 year old? Doesn't that make him a peadophile? Who sets the law on this matter and what are the standards? Is there any religious age of consent or is it all man's doing?
And when was the law intoruced, also does that mean that since histroy began any man who married or had sex with an "underage" girl is a peadophile?
I'm just wondering, because supposing an Austrian, where the age of consent is 14, visited America, would people classifiy him as a potential peadophile? Or suppose a Spanish guy, where the age of consent is 13, came to the UK with his 13 year old girlfriend, would he be prosecuted?
Just being nosy!
2007-08-24
19:36:42
·
10 answers
·
asked by
Anonymous
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
lilly4, I am aware of why they are in place. What I am asking is why are there so many variations? A child is a child, what makes a Spanish 13 year old any more capable to consent then an American 13 year old?
2007-08-24
19:56:04 ·
update #1