As if every one of us walks around flaunting our promiscuity.
I think I've seen and know about the same amount of homosexuals in serious loving relationships as heterosexuals. Well, I mean after the ratio is taken into consideration, so more like an average.
But this generalization seems to me incredibly hypocritical. How can they justify it, what are they using to back it up?
2007-08-24
17:33:56
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Cultures & Groups
➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
I know, but I want to know what small minded ignorance they use.
2007-08-24
17:41:39 ·
update #1
Garret recheck your definition of rake. A rake is a man who is extremely promiscuous, who wastes all his money, and has multiple one-night stands. Typically, the word is used more to connotate someone from the 17th or 18th centuries, but it can be used in modern-times to describe extreme promiscuity.
2007-08-24
18:31:33 ·
update #2