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28 answers

it says no such thing

2007-08-24 13:21:53 · answer #1 · answered by tasty 7 · 0 0

If you were *just*curious, you wouldn't use insulting language like "this is so dumb". I would venture a guess and say you are very young.

Tony's right: nowhere in the gospels does Jesus condemn homosexuality.

But to answer you question...well, I won't answer your question. You read the gospels for yourself, and you will have the answer. Also, if you get yourself alone, truly humble yourself before the Lord and ask him for guidance on this issue, you will get it. But it will be in his own good time. You can't rush him.

Christian law is this: Love God, and love your neighbor. If you do this, then it logically follows that you won't lie, steal, murder, rape, etc.

I tell you this, there is no way that even the most devout Christians follow the old laws. I'm not talking about the ten commandments, either.
Put your money where your mouth is. Crack open your bible, read these old laws, and tell me how you reconcile them to Jesus' teachings:

Lev 19:19 ?check the label, for goodness' sake!
Lev 21:20 ?need glasses?
Lev 15:19-24 ?haha
Lev. 25:44 ?uh oh...
Lev 11:10 ?hungry?
Exodus 21:7 ?What would Dr. Spock say?
Exodus 35:2 ?Working overtime?
Leviticus 18:22 ?Death is the last great adventure!

Be well.

2007-08-24 20:22:26 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Because shockingly enough it's not actually obvious that a universal and absolute condemnation of all same gender romantic/sexual relationships is either what was intended by the authors of most commonly cited passages, or that it is the appropriate application of these passages here and now.

I'm not going to go into a whole long schpiel on this since no one will read it anyway, but for the record, the vast majority of passages that list homosexuality as being among various things which qualify as abominations are very dubiously translated. For one, the word "homosexual" dates only to the 19th century, and has no counterpart in ancient Hebrew.

The word now translated as "homosexual" in many English translations was generally translated as "masturbator" up until about a hundred years ago. Then masturbation ceased to be considered a big deal. The original word doesn't really have a direct English equivalent, because it was coming from a very distant ancient culture and language.

And since I know people are thinking about it, the story of Sodom has nothing to do with homosexuality in general at all. Repeat: absolutely nothing to do with homosexuality, and everything to do with a very common type of ancient Mediterranian hospitality story. Gods in disguise come to town, are treated shittily by everyone except one man/family, that family is saved and everyone else dies. Greek gods did it all the time. And a nearly identical story appears in Judges - except there instead of just offering his daughters, the "righteous" man throws his concubine out to be gang raped to death, and locks the door. And the rapists weren't "Sodomites," they were the Tribe of Benjamine.


Ancient scriptures are many things, but clear, consistent, and obvious in meaning or application are not among them.

2007-08-25 22:55:39 · answer #3 · answered by Mike 4 · 1 0

Well not all christianity believes that. I go to a Catholic school and we've learned that our religion doesn't have anything against actual homosexuals or think of them as some abomination. But like they only think it is wrong when homosexuals perform homosexual acts. Besides that, how could it be so wrong if God created homosexuals? I mean.. it's not a choice at all. I was born like it and couldnt change a thing as much as I tried. I think it was just added into the Bible without the guidance of God by those who are totally against it. Oh and can someone give me the exact location of this so-called "statement" in the Bible?

2007-08-24 19:49:40 · answer #4 · answered by crazyhollisterjunkie 2 · 4 0

You actually read that in there somewhere? No offense but I doubt you've ever read the Bible. You're only repeating what you heard someone else say which is precisely how the Bible came down through the ages to us.

It was not written down until in some cases hundreds of years after the words were spoken and the events took place and written by men in an age of near illiteracy.

Two thousand years later and many translations and edits later suddenly you take this one source to decide what is abnormal?

2007-08-24 20:01:55 · answer #5 · answered by ericbryce2 7 · 5 0

Sydney, the bible was written thousands of years ago in a language that is no longer used. It has been translated into various languages, including English, many times. Each time it is translated and reconstructed it is subject to errors and mis-conceptions on the part of the translator. Also the translators tend to slant their interpretation according to what they personally believe. Down through the ages there has been entire chapters of the bible that have been left out.

It is for that reason that you can't govern your life and beliefs according to the bible without rationalizing the text with your own intelligence and then concluding what you believe is the correct interpretation. Accordingly you must treat the bible just as you would any other reference book. It is not divine.

Yes, there are a couple or so areas of the bible that speak against homosexuality. But then there are others that contradict them.

My advice to you is to follow two major commands of the lord:
(1) Love thy fellow man, and (2) Thou shall not judge.

Gay people are born in the image of Christ. You need to respect them for that. Their sexual orientation is something they were born with, not something that they chose.

2007-08-24 19:59:07 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 4 1

and who wrote the bible you are reading. The one I have never says anything about being gay or homosexual. Sure there are passages that imply things if one chooses to misinterpret them' Like when those opposed to civil rights for blacks used the bible to try to prove blacks were inferior and should remain as prpoerty. But there's not one work in the 10 commandments or the teachings of the son of god against anyone who is homosexual.

2007-08-25 17:29:09 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Okay,the bible is at best hearsay. It isn't history. As it was put together by many ,many people some many,many accounts were eliminated.It was produced by man and how anyone can say it's the word of God beats me.
Now how can you who apparently believes in God and that he is all loving possibly think that gay is a sin or abnormal?
What You are is a hypocrite as are most people who practice organized religion.You and all your kind need the prayers.

2007-08-24 20:17:51 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

You already have a lot of answers to this.

But here's my 2 cents: you point to any passage in the bible that you think condemns me and I'll show you how it is condeming gay behavior performed by heterosexual people just to be kinky or participate in idol worship.

As many passages you point to that you think condemns gay people, I'll show you another passage that condemns fat people, or menstruating women, or shrimp eaters, or crab eaters, or farmers, or slaves who try to become free, or people who wear poly/cotton blends.

Why aren't you asking about all those people along with gay people? The bible condemns them as well. Oops and the bible condemns anybody who eats cheeseburgers -- it might condemn you too.

So "how can cheeseburger eaters be christians if they are cheeseburger eaters it says in the bible that cheeseburger eaters is a ambominati."

You're right. It's so dumb.

2007-08-24 19:54:01 · answer #9 · answered by Acorn 7 · 4 0

Your question presents such a glaring misunderstanding of the Christian faith, I have no idea where to begin with my answer.

The basis of Christianity is that we are all sinners. If we weren't utterly lost in this world of sin and moral decay, we wouldn't need Jesus to rescue us, no more than somebody who was on dry land would need help from drowning. The first thing we have to accept before we accept Jesus is that we are sinners. If we weren't sinners, we wouldn't need Jesus, and Christianity would fall apart. So to say a homosexual can't be a Christian is absurd; everybody needs Christ, nobody is free of sin. Your question implies that in order to be a Christian, you have to be free of sin. In fact, it's exactly the opposite: we are actually quite full of sin, and that is why we need to be Christians.There is no such thing as a perfect Christian -- it's a paradox if there ever was one.

2007-08-28 15:53:04 · answer #10 · answered by Leroy Johnson 5 · 0 0

The same way heterosexuals can be Christians and cherry pick what they choose to follow. I highly doubt that even the most devote Christians follow everything that's written in the Bible.

2007-08-25 07:00:26 · answer #11 · answered by DawnDavenport 7 · 1 0

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