The empiricist turn in modern science has subverted the semantics of "time" to refer to measurable phænomena and relativity in particular holds it to be a progression of electromagnetic mutations but do the arguments for the reality of The Twin Paradox have any traction for sub-nuclear interactions? If so, what is the proof? All the lines of reasoning I’ve encountered speak only electromagnetic stasis for preserving the twin who’s in motion (or else epistemic illusions in obtaining information). If not, there would be a physical exception to demonstrate that the way Einstein uses “time” is not what we mean by the word in English. It's not. Modern science also abuses the way we use words like "space" and "universe," too, but society has ceded the power to fix their definitions to that field. Were there a natural clock that’s immune to “time-dilation” then there’d be an observable counter-example which would beat ‘em at their own game.
2007-08-21
17:13:25
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5 answers
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asked by
ADSum
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Science & Mathematics
➔ Physics