During the Renaissance. Specifically around 1530.
Is it Latin, French, or something else?
2007-08-21
14:47:57
·
12 answers
·
asked by
29 characters to work with......
5
in
Arts & Humanities
➔ History
I'd guess Latin, any confirmation or input is appreciated.
2007-08-21
14:48:38 ·
update #1
In western/central Europe.
2007-08-23
13:06:15 ·
update #2
Spain, the Holy Roman Empire and the Papal States to be exact.
2007-08-23
13:07:51 ·
update #3
mahadavikia
Why did you even answer?
2007-08-29
04:43:01 ·
update #4
Latin. Latin was what all learned men knew; remember that this is the dawn of humanism. French as the language of diplomacy is relatively new.
2007-08-21 14:56:10
·
answer #1
·
answered by Nannie 3
·
2⤊
1⤋
Both those languages were commonly used in Western Europe at the time in question. Gradually Latin fell out of favour (probably because the political power of the Catholic church waned) and French was established as the official language of diplomacy. Which is why until about forty years ago French was always taught as a second language just about everywhere in the world.
2007-08-21 14:55:11
·
answer #2
·
answered by marguerite L 4
·
3⤊
0⤋
French
2007-08-21 19:56:28
·
answer #3
·
answered by Moty 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
Latin was a bit outdated by 1530 (although still widely used in science, law and religion just like today). But the secular world was moving away from the historical tradition of Latin. I'd say French or Italian would have been the language of diplomacy, depending on where you were.
2007-08-21 14:56:43
·
answer #4
·
answered by texasjewboy12 6
·
0⤊
2⤋
French was the language of diplomacy throughout Europe in the 16th century. All members of the English court were educated in France, thus they were fluent in French. Also, the aristocracy in Russia was educated in France. In the court of St Peter, only French was spoken. Russian was considered the "language of the peasant". During the 16th Century, Spain was at odds with all the countries of Europe, especially France and England. It was considered an insult in all the courts of Europe, except Spain, to speak Spanish. All written communications between the governments of Europe were written in French as were all treaties.
2007-08-26 19:01:57
·
answer #5
·
answered by johny0802 4
·
1⤊
0⤋
The impact of the British Empire is the regular reason at the back of the preliminary unfold of the language a methods previous the British Isles. English is the 1st language for many folk in Australia, Canada, the Commonwealth Caribbean, eire, New Zealand, the united kingdom and the united states, and it incredibly is used as a 2nd language and as an expert language throughout the international, exceptionally in Commonwealth countries jointly with India, Pakistan and South Africa, and in many international businesses. additionally, following international warfare II, the starting to be monetary and cultural impact of the united states has severely speeded up the unfold of the language.
2016-11-13 03:06:53
·
answer #6
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
Latin was really only used in science or medicine at that point. The generic diplomatic language was French.. though it was slowly being replaced by English (which it is now)
2007-08-21 14:52:15
·
answer #7
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
1⤋
In what part of the world...?
Chinese, Manchu, Arabic, Persian, and Byzantine Greek are all possibilities. And Western Europeans often learned one another's languages, even back then.
2007-08-21 20:01:30
·
answer #8
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
1⤋
always french
2007-08-28 09:46:02
·
answer #9
·
answered by Loren S 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
i think French
2007-08-21 14:52:33
·
answer #10
·
answered by Nora 7
·
0⤊
2⤋