Lets say you pay for one movie, and when that movie is over, you stay in the movie theatre and go into a movie that is not crowded at all (without paying for it).
Ok, obviousely this is wrong, but the question is is this considered stealing. Morally wrong: yes. Stealing:?
And there may be a few conditions,
Say that the theatre is no longer selling tickets for the movie you are going into because it has been half an hour since it has started.
Say there is only like 2 people in the whole theatre and the odds are there is no way the theatre is filling.
2007-08-21 09:16:39 · 12 answers · asked by NIS 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Yes it is a form of fraud.
2007-08-21 09:22:27 · answer #1 · answered by ? 6 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it is stealing. The fact that the second movie is empty is irrelavent and you have robbed the owner of the potential to sell the seat you have stolen. It is also a criminal trespass. There is no grey area here.
2007-08-21 09:25:00 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
the employees on the action picture teach are paid minimum salary and maximum of them are youngsters or youthful adults. they could care much less because of the fact its not their theater and that they arent paid properly. the executive and proprietor notwithstanding, are a diverse tale. There are cameras in the theaters that see you enter the theater, and then see you bypass away 4 hours later. they are going to at last capture you, and likely you will be charged for theft.
2016-10-16 09:10:31 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It doesn't matter how you justify it to yourself. If you paid for the "rental of a seat" to view one movie, you have not paid for the "seat rental" for another movie.
Helping yourself to 2 movies for the price of 1 is stealing. You wouldn't expect to be allowed to fly across the country, and then immediately fly back in the same seat, just because you paid for it once, right? Same deal.
2007-08-21 09:24:46 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
yea it's a form of stealing. The movie ticket you paid for was only good for that movie and not any others.
2007-08-21 09:27:17 · answer #5 · answered by sO.:.iN.:.LOvE 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it is stealing. You only paid for one movie, yet you watched 2. There's no excuse for that. Sorry :-(
2007-08-21 09:33:51 · answer #6 · answered by Qu'est ce que tu penses? 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
it is a form of stealing
I would imagine it not only affects the movie production company's bottom line as well at the theatre owner's.
2007-08-21 09:29:46 · answer #7 · answered by Lady D 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
You paid for one movie. Watching any more than that is theft. My local theater will ban you if caught.
2007-08-21 09:30:58 · answer #8 · answered by sensible_man 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
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2007-08-21 11:33:38 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Ah, don't worry about it. Boys will be boys. Enjoy yourself. Millionaire Hollywooders make way too much dough anyways.
2007-08-21 09:26:37 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋