2007-08-21 04:56:22 · 5 answers · asked by Alexander 6 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Ok, if sound has frequency f, then the energy of the sound must be the multiple of Eo = hf, right?
2007-08-21 07:04:46 · update #1
Sounds are just vibrations/compressions in the air and other matter. Light however is believed to be both a wave and a particle at the same time.
2007-08-21 05:06:59 · answer #1 · answered by Woden501 6 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Sound is a mechanical wave, if there is no medium, it does not exist. Which means its NOT a particle, because if it was then it could exist in a vacuum much like light.
2007-08-21 13:37:47 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hi, Alex.
No is the answer. Here's why.
The particles, in gases we are talking about free molecules, are in more or less uniform (directed, non Brownian) motion to form compression (longitudinal) waves. Thus, we cannot have waves without the particles, even though we can have particles without the waves.
Thus, sound is what we call the audible waves of particles; which means sound is waves AND particles, not waves OR particles.
PS: Answers that claim sound has no particle component are overlooking molecules. They are the substance that make up the waves. Sound doesn't happen in a vacuum.
2007-08-21 13:25:48 · answer #3 · answered by oldprof 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
sound is supposed to be a translational wave....ie it is a wave transmitted by just vibrations of the air molecules..
2007-08-21 12:14:16 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Waves =]
2007-08-21 12:04:09 · answer #5 · answered by Sarlax 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋