Now that I get the funny anti-derivative part, (Muchas muchas gracias to Sean and MathGuy for that!), the answer I have to this problem is as follows:
The area between
y = sin(pi times x) and
y = x^2-x, x=2
is (4/pi) + 1 ....right?
Please show your work, if you don't mind! Thanks.
2007-08-20
07:47:02
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2 answers
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asked by
litestim
2
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics
I know that the intersection is at 1, but the problem asks for the integral for 0 to 2 reguardless... I just did it by splitting the integral into two separate problems; one for 0 to 1 and one for 1 to 2. Was that wrong?
2007-08-20
08:12:15 ·
update #1