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2007-08-20 06:35:51 · 13 answers · asked by jessie0420 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

13 answers

There are clearly several different possibilities for what you are asking. Some answerers are addressing one, some another, and none very thoroughly.

All of these cases involve the basic formula:

p = (# desired outcomes) / (# total outcomes).

Here, there are 6×6 = 36 total possible outcomes.

Case 1: The probability of two dice SUMMING to 2
Case 2: The probability that one (or both) of them is 2.
Case 3: The probability that both will be a 2.

Case 1:

There is only one outcome that sums to 2: 1+1=2. Thus the answer here is 1/36.

Case 2:

Here it's a bit trickier. There are 6 outcomes when the first dice is a 2, and 6 when the second is a 2, but those two sets of 6 share (2,2) in common. So there are really only 11 outcomes with one or more 2s showing. So here it is 11/36.

Case 3:

There is obviously only one outcome that gives this result. So you have a probability 1/36.

2007-08-20 06:46:34 · answer #1 · answered by сhееsеr1 7 · 0 2

since there are 36 possible outcomes, the probability that both dice will get 2 is 1/36 or 0.028

or can also be computed as probability of event A and event B occuring simultaneously. denoted as P(A intersection B). intersection is represented by an inverted letter U... not available in my keyboard
event A= getting 2 on the first dice
event B = getting 2 on the second dice

since on dice#1 there are 6 possible outcomes(1,2,3,4,5,6)
the probability of getting "2" is 1/6... the same is the case for for dice#2
since P(A intersection B) = P(B) * P(A)
= 1/6 * 1/6
= 1/36
= 0.028
i hope this helps...
*by the way... P(A intersection B) = P(B) * P(A) can only be used for independent events... that is if the events does not affect the occurence of the other.

2007-08-20 13:52:02 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If what u are referring to is getting 2 on each of the 2 dices thrown at once, then the answer is (1/6 * 1/6 = 1/36)

2007-08-20 13:46:46 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The probability of getting a 2 would be the probability of getting a 1 on one die times the probability of getting a 1 on one on the other.

The probability of getting a 1 on one die is 1/6, because there are 6 numbers on a die and one of them is a 1.

The probability of getting a 1 on the other die is the same, 1/6, because the dice are the same.

So, 1/6 * 1/6 = 1/36.

2007-08-20 13:41:10 · answer #4 · answered by Larry C 3 · 2 1

Probability of getting a 1 on each die is 1/6 x 1/6 = 1/36

2007-08-20 13:42:22 · answer #5 · answered by skipper 7 · 0 1

P(two 2`s) = (1 / 6) x (1 / 6) = 1 / 36

2007-08-20 14:18:56 · answer #6 · answered by Como 7 · 1 0

1/36

there are 36 ways to roll the dice and only one way to get a two.

2007-08-20 13:41:42 · answer #7 · answered by Matt C 3 · 2 1

(1,2) (2,1)
(2,2) (2,2)
(3,2) (2,3)
(4,2) (2,4)
(5,2) (2,5)
(6,2) (2,6)

p(a)=6 prob of getting 2 in first dice
p(b)=6 prob of getting 2 in second dice
p(a n b)=1 prob of intersection of a and b
we know that p(aUb)= p(a)+p(b)-p(a n b)
===> p(aUb) = 6+6-1
= 11
therefore ans is 11/36


If the sum of the number of two dice should be 2 then the ans is 1/6 *1/6 =1/36

2007-08-20 13:49:11 · answer #8 · answered by Ollilu 1 · 0 0

1/6 (6 equal chances of landing on a certain number) for one di. Then you have to multiply that by two for two dice. 1/6X1/6=1/32.

2007-08-20 13:44:07 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

that means you can have one 2, or two 2.
P = 1/6 + 1/6 + 1/6 * 1/6 = 13/36 = %36.1

2007-08-20 14:45:15 · answer #10 · answered by Nima J 4 · 0 1

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