i know it is 1 1/3 by why (please give great detail)
2007-08-20 06:21:26 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
why does 20/15 equal 1 1/3
2007-08-20 06:29:59 · update #1
(4/5) ÷ (3/5) = (4/5) x (5/3) = 4/3 = 1 1/3
2007-08-20 07:22:34 · answer #1 · answered by Como 7 · 4⤊ 0⤋
because
4/5 ÷ 3/5 is the same as
4/5 x 5/3
because
4/5 is the numerator, and 3/5 is the denominator, and so 3 becomes the numerator and 5 the denominator, and the numbers are then multiplied.
4/5 x 5/3 = 20/15 = 1 1/3
for instance, 2 ÷ 1/2 = 4, as in 2/1 ÷ 1/2, is the same as 2/1 x 2/1 = 4
It's hard to illustrate with the typing restrictions on this answers site, but you can generally just divide the fractions by inversing the second fraction, then multiplying.
2007-08-20 06:35:23 · answer #2 · answered by dmc 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Dividing by a number is the same as multiplying by the same number with the numerator and the denominator flipped.
So 4/5 divided by 3/5 is the same as 4/5 times 5/3 (the 5 and 3 are flipped). And 4/5 times 5/3 is 4/3 (the 5's cancel each other out). And 4/3 = 1 1/3.
You can see why this is the case even with whole numbers, by converting them to fractions. 4 divided by 5 is the same as 4 times 1/5 (5 can be expressed as a fraction equal to 5/1. And when you flip the numerator and denominator, you get 1/5). So 4 time 1/5 equals 4/5. So this works for both fractions and whole numbers.
2007-08-20 06:31:24 · answer #3 · answered by redbird 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To divide fractions you must first find the reciprocal of 3/5, which would be 5/3 (just the opposite).Now just multiply, 4/5*5/3 which is equal to 20/15. When 20/15 is simplified you get 1 1/3.
2007-08-20 06:28:29 · answer #4 · answered by someone 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
When dividing two fractions what you do is multiply by the reciprocal. A reciprocal is a fractions opposite (ex. 4/7 reciprocal would be 7/4). So the reciprocal of 3/5 is 5/3. Then what you do is multiply 4/5 by 5/3.
4*5=20
5*3=15
so you get 20/15 which is simplified to 1 1/3.
Thats the simplest way I can explain it for you.
2007-08-20 06:32:27 · answer #5 · answered by Wannabepilot 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
4/3 because you reciprical(flip the fraction) the divisor and then multiply the fraction. So it's really 4/5 * 5/3 which multiplied out is 20/15. That can be simplified to 4/3 because 20 and 15 have a common factor of 5. 4/3 can also be written as 1 1/3. I hope that wasn't too confusing:)
2007-08-20 06:28:48 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
4/5 / (3/5) = (4/5)(5/3) = 20/15=1 5/15 = 1 1/3
Invert the denominator and multiply
how do you do (1/2) / 2?
it equals (1/2) /(2/1)= (1/2)(1/2)=1/4
2007-08-20 06:27:44 · answer #7 · answered by skipper 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Dividing by a fraction is the same as multiplying by its reciprocal.
Thus (4/5) / (3/5) = (4/5) * (5/3) = 20/15 = 4/3
This always works!
2007-08-20 06:25:05 · answer #8 · answered by MathProf 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋
4/5 div by 3/5 = 4/5 * 5/3 Rule is when you divide by a fraction, invert the fraction and multiply.
= 20/15 = 1 1/3
Also 4/5 = .8, 3/5 = .6
.8/.6 = 1 1/3
2007-08-20 06:25:08 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
1. (4/5) / (3/5) if you multiply this by 1 it would stay the same.
2. 1 = 5/5
3. ((4/5)*5) / ((3/5)*5) then fives will cancel each other = 4 / 3
4 / 3 = 1 1/3
2007-08-20 06:32:30 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋